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Male genital warts and Female abnormal PAP; Ten year latency or recent transmission?

by JamesJarman, Mar 30, 2008 07:39PM
I was a virgin when I married my wife and had had very little sexual activity with anyone else (no oral sex, fondling, etc. with others).  However, my wife had had several sexual partners before our marriage.

After ten years of marriage, genital warts started to appear on the shaft of my penis near the head, which continued to proliferate for the next year until I had them removed.  About eight months after my warts started to appear, my wife had her first abnormal pap, followed by a cervical sample being taken and tested in the lab for possible cancer (negative).  She has been confirmed HPV positive.  She has not shown any signs of genital warts.

How likely or even possible is it that my wife could have contracted the strains of HPV virus for the abnormal pap and my genital warts prior to our marriage and for them to have been latent for ten years?
Member Comments (1)

by auntiejessi, Mar 30, 2008 07:44PM
First, your strain is different than what is showing up on her pap.  There are no strains that will cause both warts and abnormal cells on her cervix.  Its not at all uncommon for someone to have more than one strain, as there are literally dozens of strains that can affect the genitals.

10 years would be pushing it.  The longest I've ever seen is 7, and we thought that was pushing it.  I suppose its possible though.

If this is the only indication that your wife has been unfaithful, its not enough to say for sure.

AJ

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