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STDs  (Expert Forum)
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Massage Parlor STD
Answered by
University of Washington Seattle - WA
Welcome to the STD Forum, which is intended only for questions and support pertaining to sexually transmitted diseases other than HIV/AIDS, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, human papillomavirus, genital warts, trichomonas, other vaginal infections, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), cervicitis, molluscum contagiosum, chancroid, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). All questions will be answered by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. or Edward W Hook, MD.

Massage Parlor STD

by TerriblySorry, Apr 29, 2009 05:00PM
On April 2, 09 I to Mexico to get Azitromicina (Spanish)  that was prescribed for my sick son.  I bought a second dose for myself because I had the same symptons. In Tijuana I visited a massage parlor which finished with the woman applying oil to my genitals.  Then we had sex with a condom (missionary position only).  I showered after the encounter and tried to wash my genitals but I didn’t get off all the oil.

Later at home I showered again and tried to wash the oil off better.  I then wiped germ-x around my genitals.

Then I started taking my antibiotic.  Later that same day my wife and I had sex.  It took me an extra amount of time to ejaculate—my concern here is that if I had any STD on me then I might have really ground it into my wife.

Three weeks later my wife complains of itching and starts a 7 day treatment for yeast infection.  I show no symptoms.  She never gets yeast infections and so she commented that I would be in big trouble if I had been playing around.  She hasn’t said anything since then, about 7 days ago.  Her treatment is ending today.


My worry is that I may have carried an STD in the oil that I didn’t adequately wash off the base of my penis and then have transferred that STD to my wife later that same day.

I keep thinking that since the condom didn’t reach the base of my 8” penis then I must have had vaginal fluid on my skin at the base of my penis or on my scrotum, and then I worry that I didn’t wash it off well enough.

I know my partner has been faithful.  What are the chances of the above scenario resulting in STD transfer?  Could any of this cause a yeast infection?  

I am thinking of getting tested without telling my partner but I also worry that since I took the antibiotic then I might be clean but my partner may have an STD.  I am considering waiting to get tested later until my partner has a chance to reinfect me (if she has anything).  At least that way I will know if she has something.

Please advise.

by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Apr 30, 2009 07:03AM
Welcome to the forum.  I'll try to help.  But I suspect my answer will be brief.  Based only on the title you chose for your question "Massage Parlor STD", before I read anything esle:  If you had unprotected vaginal or anal sex in a massage partner, you could have caught an HIV there.  If only a massage or maybe oral sex, you can assume you are not at risk.

Now I have read the question itself.   With condom protected sex, you did not catch an STD.  Using oil as lubricant weakens latex and can result in rupture, but if the condom remains intact, it was fully protective.  All male condoms permit skin contact above the condom range, but that doesn't allow much opportunity for STD transmission.  Further, the azithromycin would have prevented any bacterial STD (gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis) from taking hold.  Finally, your wife's symptoms do not suggest HIV. Yeast is not sexually transmitted, and a provider's diagnosis of yeast usually is accurate.

There is no need for you to be tested for STDs.  It's fine with me if you do it anyway, but it will be a waste of money.  The waiting until she reinfects you is nonsense.  

Whether you say anything to your partner about your sexual indiscretion is up to you.  But from an STD risk standpoint, there definitely is no need to do that.  It is time to move on without worry about your health or your wife's.

Best wishes--  HHH, MD
Member Comments (5)

by vvwjjman, Apr 30, 2009 08:32AM
To: Doctor
hand job + 5 months later no warts symptom = free of warts?

by TerriblySorry, Apr 30, 2009 09:34AM
You said, "Further, the azithromycin would have prevented any bacterial STD (gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis) from taking hold."

However, my main concern (and point of the question) is this...Could I have carried STD (gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis) at the base of my penis and then infect my wife if I had sex with her soon after (and before azithromycin would have cleaned me up?

Also, her diagnosis of yeast infection was her own diagnosis, not that of a doctor (she is a nurse, however, but also a wife in denial).

by TerriblySorry, Apr 30, 2009 09:37AM
Oh, and I am not so much concerned about HIV as I am gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, or herpes or God knows whatever else.  I am concerned about those STDs that I have been warned that condoms do not always prevent.

by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Apr 30, 2009 01:24PM
Gonorrhea does not adhere to the skin.  No STD does.  There is no 100% protection against herpes or HPV, but the risks are very low.

That's all I have to say and will not respond to any further comments.  You came here for reassurance.  I suggest you accept it and move on.
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