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Mild Displaysia

About 6 years ago, I was diagnosed with mild displaysia. My doctor said there was no concern, but we did take the necessary precautions. She took a biopsy to ensure the cells weren't cancerous, and they weren't. I also went through a procedure where she froze the top layer of those cells. After that, I did a pap about every 3 months for about a year, and since then, even today, my paps have been normal. I understand that this was caused by HPV. My question, will I pass this on to my boyfriend, even though, I my paps come back normal every year? Or is this something that has been taken care. I also take an annual STD test, and those are negative as well.

Also, will this in anyway affect me when I am ready to have children.
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Avatar universal
I'm not sure if this is stupid question or not, but i'm going to ask anyway. As a guy can you extract HPV or mild dysplasia from a female through oral sex? And if so, can you transfer it to another female through intercourse? I would appreciate your help, Thank You.
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79258 tn?1190630410
They only included current positive results--which is good, 'cause I imagine plenty of women would have underreported/overreported their histories, may have been misdiagnosed, etc.

So since 25 million women *currently* have HPV (that's 27% overall--and 49% of women in the 20-24 age group), I think it's safe to say that HPV is truly ubiquitous. And for most women, completely harmless :-)
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
There are at least 3 misconceptions in the remarks from someoneinla.

1) Almost all high-grade dysplasia is due to high-risk HPV types.  But many low grade dysplasias are the result of low-risk HPV types.

2) Not all high-risk HPV infections cause dysplasia.  Most do not.

3) The large majority of cervical dysplasias, including high-grade ones, do not progress to cancer; they just go away even if untreated.  Many providers downplay the cancer connection in counseling patients with dysplasia or other HPV infections.  (I don't think that's a good idea, but it certainly is common.)

Nobody can second-guess another person's symptoms; your experience is yours.  But the research is clear:  the vast majority of dysplasia, if not all, is asymptomatic.

HHH, MD
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Avatar universal
Wait a sec...This seems to run contrary to the common assumption I've seen all over the web that low risk types always equals warts, and that high risk types always equal dysplasia. I got an abnormal pap in 1998 (nothing since), and had the exact same experience and procedures as the girl above - cancer was not mentioned at all, and the doctor was very nonchalent about the whole thing. Is this very common? It's very comforting to think that not every case of dysplasia is caused by cancerous strains.

Also, I just wanted folks know that even though doctors commonly say that subclinical (pap, not wart) HPV doesn't have any symptoms, it most certainly did with me. I remember feeling kind of itchy and uncomfortable exactly a month or two after my experience with the person who gave me HPV. It was like clockwork.
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Avatar universal
It's interesting that the JAMA study points out that positive HPV results are  very infrequently caused by high risk types.

I wonder how many HPV types cause only mild dysplasia in women, and that's it. I wish there was a way I could find out if I have (had?) a cancer-causing strain or not.

The study is rather frustrating because it makes its estimates based off women with a current HPV infection. It does not say whether it includes women who said they've had a past outbreak. That is confusing. I've been told that a few years after initial infection, women generally test negative with the best HPV tests available.

If the JAMA study has concluded that 7.5 million women have HPV based on results of a study on girls with CURRENT infection, are they not including the girls who have HPV in their histories, and now test negative?

I wonder if these DNA tests used in the study were any more accurate than the HPV test from Digene.

Other interesting notes from the study:

"Overall, HPV types 6, 11, 16, or 18 were detected in 3.4% of the study participants."

"HPV DNA was detected in approximately 5% of women in our study who reported never having had sex."

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Avatar universal
I was just wondering if you would like to make any additional comments or observations on HPV in light of the article that came out today in JAMA?
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
First, don't feel that you were specially singled out in some way:  almost everybody gets it at least once (over 80% of people who have had at least 3-4 different sex partners in their entire lives get infected).  That your infection caused cervical dysplasia also is nothing unusual or abnormal.

The large majority of HPV infections clear up on their own, and your continuing normal paps indicate your infection is gone.  You probably are no longer carrying the virus and cannot transmit it, and there is no risk to your future children. Actually HPV may persist in lots of people, and nobody can say whether or not that this applies to you. But when it persists, the infection is usually at so low levels it cannot be detected, cannot be transmitted, and will never cause future health problems.  If you were to get a new abnormal pap or other evidence of HPV in the future, it would most likely indicate a new infection, not return of your old one.  Assuming your boyfriend has had other sex partners in the past, he could well be infected already.

Look at genital HPV infection as normal--not desirable, but inevitable, and normal in the same way we all carry various bacteria that usually cause no harm but once in a while causes significant disease, like staph, strep, or E. coli.

For more information see the information available at www.metrokc.gov/health/apu/std, www.ashastd.org, and/or www.cdc.gov/std.  Or search MedHelp for 'HPV' and 'Human papillomavirus'.

Good luck--  HHH, MD

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