No one cheated, but positive test

[clozer2thezun]

My fiancée and I have been in our committed relationship since June 2008.  Before we got together I was tested in Jan 08 and tested neg.  I was tested again in June 08 and was neg.  At that time, we were having protected sex.  He wasn't tested and it's possible he may have had an infection.  I was tested in Dec 08 and was neg.  I was tested this June 09 and tested positive for Chlamydia.  I know the odds are that he cheated, as I didn't.  But here are some interesting events.  A few months after we got together he asked me about some burning feeling he was getting while urinating.  Because of my recent neg test in June 08 we thought nothing of it.  Forgot about the fact he wasn't tested.  And the reason I was tested in Dec 08 was because the clinic claimed they had lost the paperwork from the tests I had in June08.  Turns out they started two files on me.   My fiancée has suggested we both take polygraph tests, which I plan on seeing through.  And we have both been retested and are awaiting the results.  These are the questions I have:

I know a lot of factors play a part when determining the chance of false negatives.  But can you give me some kind of idea as to the likelihood I could have had a false negative in Dec 08?

I am also aware that it's possible that in some individuals Chlamydia clears up without treatment.  What's the likelihood that I had been infected and that it cleared before my test in Dec. 08?  Note:  I pride myself on having what I consider to be a tough immune system.  I hardly ever get sick and I clear most infections without antibiotics.  I even cleared what my Dr. and I thought to be MRSA.

I'd like to take these odds and multiply them together to get some kind of, although not scientific and perhaps not very accurate, probability he didn't cheat.  I trying to see this as innocent until proven guilty but it’s soo hard when it comes to affairs of the heart.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

I'm not sure why you raise the question of false negatives.  Chlamydia is more often asymptomatic in both women and men than symptomatic, can persist without symptoms for long periods of time (over a year for sure) and is not transmitted on every episode of unprotected sex.  You had 2 negative tests in January 08 and June 08, followed by a positive test now, in June 09.  Assuming you were tested with a high quality test, the chance that your most recent test represented a false positive or a laboratory mix up are quite small and could be ruled out with a repeat test, before treatment.  Thus, it certainly appears that you acquired chlamydia in the past year.  

On the other hand, your BF had symptoms a few months after you began seeing one another and has not been tested.  You don't mention whether he was tested or not but if he was not, it is possible that he was infected when he entered the relationship and subsequently transmitted the infection to you.  He would not need to have cheated on your relationship for this to have happened.  This may all be due to something that happened before you two were in a committed relationship.  

The important thing at this time is that you both get treated.  

Am I missing something here?  EWH

[clozer2thezun]

the tests the clinic used were PCR tests- clozer2thezun

[clozer2thezun]

Thank you for your time.  The reason I asked about false negative tests, was because I'm thinking that perhaps he had the disease before we got together which was 6 months before I tested negative.  And now 6 months later, I'm postitive.  So either he cheated since that negative test or the negative test was false, or I was infected and cleared it on my own prior to the negative test.   And I wanted to know the likelihood of these events occurring.   Clozer2thezun

[clozer2thezun]

I tested negative also in Dec 08,  If that test was correct, then I got Chlamydia in the last 6 months, means he cheated.  So I'm really hoping it was a false negative test, that I did infact have Chlamydia at that time, or I cleared it.  

[Edward W Hook, MD]

TI think you and I can look at the same information and come to different conclusions.  It is possible that he entered the relationship with an infection, that it was not transmitted for some time (both due to intial condom use and subsequently due to the nature of STD transmission - not every  or even most exposure leads to transmission).  I have seen this happen on more than one occasion.  EWH_

[clozer2thezun]

My partner and I have our results back.  We both had urine tests and I also had a swab, which the clinic called a wet mount.  All three of our tests came back negative!!  What a stressfull few days!  Next time, I will be sure to not jumb to conclusions!