This is a follow up question from a thread that Dr. Hook answered for me. He assured me that the likely hood of acquiring herpes in my situation was very, very low. After seeing my PCP I had more questions.
On November 15, I received a lap dance. The stripper took my penis out and rubbed it on her vagina for 15 seconds. She then stroked my penis for 1 min. 4 days later I started to have hot flashes, swollen lymph nodes in my groin, back ache, headaches, and some reddened areas on my penis that were sore to the touch. No vesicles, blisters or sores. These symptoms have remained through today. I do have oral HSV-1 and I have been taking 1 gram daily for suppression for about 2 years ( I was getting a cold sore about every 4 – 6 weeks) My last IGG test was negative for HSV2 and my last sexual contact was at least 6 months prior to that blood test. I took extra Valtrex before and after incident.
I saw my PCP. He said that my groin lymph nodes were “swollen but non-impressive”. They were primarily on the left side but some on the right too. He said the red areas on my penis did not look like typical Herpes. After some thinking, he did state that many people have atypical symptoms and the reddened skin on my penis might be that. He suggested an IGM test. I told him that from what I have read here that this test was not useful. I asked if he could swab the red areas and he said that they were not wet and would not yield any results. I was also able to speak to the stripper with whom I had the contact and she denies having genital herpes. Although, she did report a few yeast infections over the years.
In the unlikely event I did contract herpes genitally wouldn’t I expect to see genital lesions with my systemic symptoms? If this were herpes, would not the Valtrex have resolved or prevented any systemic symptoms as well as visible lesions? Do you think any other STD could account for my symptoms?