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Question about oral transmission of STDs

by reptar, Jun 25, 2009 01:16PM
I am a man that was recently diagnosed with Chlamydia or Gonorrhea.  
The doc was not sure which but since the treatment is the same for both he decided to skip the lab work.

I am pretty sure that I contracted it by receiving unprotected oral sex about a week before I noticed symptoms: a burning sensation inside the opening of my penis.
The day before my symptoms appeared I performed oral sex on my wife.

What are the chances that I passed my infection on to my wife?
Are infections like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea localized at the point of entry on the body?
In other words, could I have passed the infection from my mouth even though I contracted it in my genitals?
Member Comments (8)

by 2terrified, Jun 25, 2009 01:26PM
That is absolutely WRONG!  The treatment for gonorrhea and chlamydia are NOT the same.  You need to see a different doctor more experienced with std's.

If you did not get them orally, you can absolutely not pass it to your wife through oral sex.  You can only get an oral std if you performed oral sex on an infected individual (this is very rare so don't get paranoid)

Again, you need to get the labwork done and get treated properly.   What did he give you by the way?

by reptar, Jun 25, 2009 01:38PM
The treatment was a one time dose of Azithromycin

by 2terrified, Jun 25, 2009 01:43PM
That is treatment for chlamydia only.  It is common for gonorrhea to be present along with chlamydia, so you need to get proper treatment for that as well.  They both exhibit similar symptoms so, you could be getting treated for the wrong thing.  It is your call.  But azithromycin will not cure gonorrhea.

by reptar, Jun 25, 2009 01:52PM
Are you 100% sure about this?
I have read a few sites that say that this is an acceptable treatment for both:

http://www.wrongdiagnosis.com/g/gonorrhea/treatments.htm

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9071422

by Vance2335, Jun 25, 2009 02:06PM
This is from the CDC: Recommended Regimens

Ceftriaxone 125 mg IM in a single dose
   OR
Cefixime 400 mg orally in a single dose or 400 mg by suspension (200 mg/5ml)

by Vance2335, Jun 25, 2009 02:10PM
If it was from unprotected oral sex it could be gonorrhea or NGU not chlymida. I personally think it was wrong of your Dr to not do the testing, but that was his choice. I assume you have started medication so any test now would be compromised.

If you still have symptoms after 1 week after the medication follow up with your Dr, or if symptoms return then follow up with your Dr.

The medication may cure gonorrhea or it may not, but as I posted above it is not the recommended treatment from the CDC. And since I am in America and the website is based out of America I go by what they say.

by reptar, Jun 25, 2009 02:17PM
Thanks for the insight on the treatment.  I will pay attention to the symptoms and return the Dr if they persist.

However, my bigger concern is for my wife's health.

Is it true that she is not at risk in this situation?
This is NOT a conversation I want to have with her but if she is at risk then I must and will.

by Vance2335, Jun 25, 2009 03:01PM
Not unless you had intercourse with her. The infection is localized to where it occured.
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