Back in April 20, I had protected intercourse vagina (no oral/annal) with a CSW. I also gave her a quick French kiss after we finished. Assumed the condom didn't fail.
***3.5 days after exposure, I tested (PCR DNA) negative for everything STDs/HIV.
***7 weeks after exposure, I only tested for HIV (ELISA), Gonorrhea, Clamidya. All three came back negative.
***3 months after exposure, I tested everything STDs/HIV. Gonorrhea, Clamidya, herpes 2, HIV, Hep B & C are all negative. However, Herpes Simplex Type 1 positive.
1. Did I get Herpes 1 from this particular exposure? If so, how come I still haven't develop any outbreak yet? Can this be a false positive? How likely do the lab mix-up the blood-tubes with someone's else?
2. Would 3 months test for Syphilis, Herpes 2, and HIV consider conclusive?
1) was herpes tested 3.5 days after possible exposure? all you say is all STDs? if it was tested, what were the results. if the first test was 3 months after April 20, you will never now when you got HSV1. type 1 herpes is common and it may well be that you have had it for years already.
2) yes, no need for further tests, if there are no other risk situations. actually the case you describe was not a risky situation in the first place.
3) no. since you have no outbreaks, you most likely have herpes1 orally. most logical case anyway. only if you happen to have CLEAR herpes symptoms in your genital region, then consult an expert so that they can verify if you it turned out that you had herpes in genital region, however, it is unlikely and I doubt it very much.
You can relax. The only thing you should worry is that beware not to pass your herpes forward to anyone's genital region, cause it may be annoying there. having protected oral sex is a safe bet, or when in a relationship where your partner does not have hsv1 yet, you two should discuss the issue before having unprotected oral sex. in my opinion it would be nicer to have herpes orally than genitally, if I was to choose. Take care.
I also tested for herpes at 3.5 days after the exposure. The test came back negative for herpes both 1 & 2. So, I can conclude that I got herpes 1 from this particular exposure right? :(
Wouldn't normal people develop outbreak 10-20 days after infected? how come I still haven't developed any outbreak yet? Could it be that the result from 3 months is false-positive? How likely do the lab mix-up the blood-tubes with someone's else?
If you had a negative test right after the incident, it is pretty reliable that you did not have herpes back then. It may be that you got herpes from this encounter of from other source. I'm not that familiar with different herpes tests and possible false positives, but I doubt that this is the case. I have understood (this may not be true, someone correct me if i've mistaken) that for example a HSV1 carrier may with some tests and under some circumstances receive a false positive for HSV2 also. But if that one was neg and only HSV1 was positive, I guess it is a reliable result. I do not see mix-up of blood-tubes is at all likely.
Usually a herpes outbreak is said to appear within 20 days, but this is not always the case. I've read that HSV1 symptoms are typically milder and do not occur that often. And when received orally, many people do not have outbreaks at all.
I'd say you're in the clear. You've probably had HSV-1 for a long time. I think the stats are something like 80% of the population has 1. Its often contracted in childhood. Often times, those with HSV-1 don't get very many outbreaks. So, I guess if you never or hardly ever get cold sores on your lips, consider yourself lucky!
what makes you think veryworried has had HSV1 for a long time if the test right after the sex session was negative? anyway, you most likely have it orally, which is not a big deal in most cases, like yours - if you haven't had any outbreaks. the only concern is not to pass it someones genital region, where it would be more annoying to have. lots of kisses first is my recommendation if your new partner does not have HSV1 yet...
Oh, my mistake... I reread all of the posts. I guess I was thinking like you were in your previous post...that he didn't test for Herpes the first time around. I suppose its possible he got it from his exposure from the CSW since it didn't turn up positive the first time Or perhaps the test was not accurate...who knows. If he's that concerned, I guess he should get tested again to confirm. But, yeah, I'd say its most likely that he has it orally. I just think its unlikely that he got it from the CSW if you look at statistics. But its possible.
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