Okay first scenario: I gave a guy oral sex for a very short time. This guy touched his penis, and then inserted his finger into my butt for a couple of minutes. I did not let the guy "cum" in my mouth. The guy and I had NO anal sex what so ever from this encounter. My throat began to hurt several days later. I went to the dr's. and was told I had throat gonorrhea. Recieved the injection and 4 pink pills to treat it. I returned 3 weeks later and was told it was cleared. Since then, I have been having a weird sensation in my rectum, my bowel movements have been like pellets and when I wipe there is no fecal matter besides a green mucous like matter... My question is, wouldn't the treatment for the throat gonorrhea have treated the gonorrhea if it was present in my rectum from the guy inserting his finger after touching his penis? And if not, are these the symptoms of rectal gonorrhea or something else?
My second concern is, I have really bad teeth. I have one missing tooth that never was fully extracted, one wisdom tooth that is cracked and exposed (the inside) and another that had a really sore next to it. This was the condition my mouth was in when I gave that guy oral sex. He did give me gonorrhea. I did not let him "cum" in my mouth, but he did have precum. I know that gonorrhea increases the risk of transmission (acquiring and giving) HIV. Seeing as how I had these open sores, would it be possible for me to have gotten HIV? I was tested at week 8, and it was negative, but plan to test at three months. Would this be considered low risk, moderate risk, or high risk? And if the results for my 3 month test come back negative, can I take this as conclusive or should I wait until the 6 month mark???
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