I have read throughout the forums, but feel a need to ask my question as I feel like my situation played out slightly different and a direct answer will sufficiently end all my doubts.
I recently used my friend's washroom where on the door knob was a pair of used underwear. I had to close the door and subsequently touched the underwear as well. I proceeded to urinate at the toilet (touched my penis with the same hand to take it out). If the owner of the underwear has STIs will i be susceptible to getting infected?
Is there an explanation for the lack of risk? If the underwear is wet from her bodily fluids, making contact with that fluid on her underwear with my genital does not equate to exposure to STD (if said person had STD)? Thank you once again.
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