STD exposure

I am a married man who has visited several escorts up to 6 months ago. During a moment of clarity I decided to get my priorities right and have changed my lifestyle. In all of these encounters I had protected vaginal intercourse and on three occassions also had unprotected oral sex. During that time I did not have sex with my wife.

After stopping with the escorts I had semi protected sex once with my wife (brief penetration without condom then completion with condom). that was 5 months ago. I have had no symptoms of any std myself, but my wife has noticed some discharge (off white with a slight odour) with no discomfort or pain during the past 4 weeks (three months after we last had sex).

I am going to be tested for std's tomorrow - from the exposure that I have had is it likely that I have now infected my wife with Chlamydia and/or Gonorrea? Is it likely that I am also infected? I know that I was persuing risky behaviour which is why I am getting tested. How at risk have I placed my wife based on the information above? Obviously I will come clean to her if my test is positive in any way (which I honestly do expect - I am practicing the phraseing already)

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

Six months is a bit long for you to carry STDs.  However, you could have infected your wife between then and now.  And women can be infected for months, with symptoms on and off.

Your wife needs to be examined and checked for STDs, especially gonorrhea and chlamydia.  This needs to happen regardless of the results of your own tests.  In most men with gonorrhea or chlamydia, the infection goes away in a few weeks without treatment, so you could have infected your wife but have negative tests at this time.

Sorry, I can't sugar coat it.  She needs to be checked to protect her health, and to prevent the possibility that you will be reinfected by her.

Good luck--  HHH, MD