Greetings, I think this site is great and a real service to the internet community. Let me preface this by saying I am a 23 year old healthy male with no STD history.
I recently had a sexual encounter, all activities during this encounter were well protected, and almost immediately following that encounter I had some minor skin irritation under my pubic hair at the base of my penis on the right side (approx. 10 o'clock position.) I did not see any redness or sores on my partner. I tend to be quite vigorous with my post coitis cleanup and I cleaned my pubic region with soap and water. Some time after that I cleaned the same region with some 70% rubbing alcohol (like I said I am vigorous) this is not an uncommon practice for me and never before has it resulted in skin irritation. I woke up the next morning with some tenderness in the region described above. As the day progressed the irritation got a little worse. It gets especially irritated when the hair in the area is moved about. There is no redness and no visible bumps. I can't see that irritated area could have come in much contact with infectious material. I would expect that an area with no hair, immediately outside the condom would have greater risk of infection.
My questions is this... Do I have any reason to be concerned with respect to somthing like herpes given the immediate onset of the irritaiton? Would applying a topical antibiotic like neosporin help to calm this irritation down?
Thank you for your time in reading and replying.
No STD can show up immediately after sex; whatever you had probably was there before the sexual encounter you describe, then perhaps exacerbated by the vigorous clean-up afterward. Herpes doesn't usually occur in the pubic hair area, but it can. You should see a health care provider, preferably one who is familiar with STDs (e.g., your local health department). In the meantime, definitely don't put neosporin or anything else on it; it could screw up the diagnosis when you are examined.
I am reasonably sure that I didn't have anything prior to this event. I get checked up by my GP on a regular basis and I haven't had sexual activity for several months prior to this event, with no indication of infection. I am also quite prone to stuff like ingrown hairs and such. Does this info change your opinion?
That information doesn't change my thinking. Having sex simply cannot cause any infection that quickly. Painful skin lesions usually are first noticed when bumped or rubbed, which might happen during sex. That doesn't mean the lesion wasn't there before it was bumped or rubbed. Perhaps you have an ingrown hair, but whatever it is, you didn't get it during the sexual exposure you describe.
Use the search function at the top of the STD forum; enter "time to positive HIV test" (in quotes). You'll see the same question and my replies. Over 90% of the time, the test becomes positive by 4 weeks. If the risk of getting infected was low to begin with, 90% often is good enough for reassurance.
Hey HHH, I wrote another question in my thread about the Banzcaine condoms that was posted on 6/8. I was hoping you could answer it without me having to post another topic. Sorry to interfere with this one. Thanks for the support.
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