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Yes, the antibiotic you took could have made the chlamydia test (and a gonorrhea test, if done) falsely negative. With modern chlamydia testing, urinating beforehand isn't a problem--but the antibiotic is.
Thank you, that was very helpful information. I was also wondering. When the doctor looks at the sample under a microscope, would she see any evidence of chlamydia?
ok so i have a question about chlamydia. i had my first sexual experience which was protected but it was with someone who had multiple partners. about 2 months later i started dating someone exclusivley when we had sex i noticed i bled afterwards. so i asked the doctor who gave me a test for chlamydia. i was positive went thru the treatments. my boyfriend tested negative. the first guy i slept with tested negative and also another partner of that very first guy tested negative. since everyone tested negative but me and i was the least sexually active is it ever possible to get chlamydia without it being sexually transmitted ir is it possible it was a wrong diagnosis?
I read your question, I did ask my doctor and it is generally not possible to get it any other way than sexually. If you got it from the first guy, by the time he got tested he could have already been on antibiotics for something else. I have also been told by doctors that in guys, chlamydia can sometimes go away on it's own over time (sometimes in as little as 4 months) Now a far remote possibility which my doctor had informed me of is if someone else had it and they had touched themselves in the affected area and then you came in contact with their hands within a few (very few) minutes it is possible then to pass it non sexually. But the likelyhood of it happening that way is almost nonexistent.
HHH, MD