A "wet" or "saline" prep simply means a wet specimen, usually vaginal secretions but possibly urine, was examined under a microscope. Trich are observed swimming around, sort of like the microscopic paramecium organisms you might have seen in a school science class. A postive wet prep by a reliable lab is highly reliable. Aside from some special tests only available in reseach labs, no other test is reliable evidence of trichomonas.
Please direct any further questions to your own doc.
Trichomonas continues to have mysterious elements. Not even the best experts have better understanding than your gynecologist does. Despite its frequency as one of the most common STDs, not much research has been done to understand these issues. That is beginning to change, however, and better answers may be available in the future.
Although clearly sexually transmitted and acquired in the large majority of cases, not infrequently it appears (reappears?) in truly monogamous settings. It would be smart for you and your husband to both be tested for other STDs, since trich often accompanies gonorrhea or chlamydia; and also smart to have a frank but sensitive discussion with your husband about whether either of you had other partners recently. You are by far the best judge of whether he is being truthful about other partners. It is unlikely that trich would persist for 10 years, but even this isn't known with certainty. That your symptoms came on abruptly and were so prominent suggests a new infection, not chronic carriage of the organism.
There is no reliable test for trichomonas in men and his negative test means nothing; you and he need to assume he is infected, and he needs to be treated. In fact, if you have had sex with him since you were treated, you need to be retreated as well. (That is, both members of an infected couple need to be treated simultaneously.)
Bottom lines: Get tested for other STDs, if not yet done; same for your husband; and he needs to be treated and you might need retreatment. Have a discussion with your husband about other partners, but don't assume it without other evidence.
I hope this helps. Sorry that firm answers don't exist. That's just the way it is. HHH, MD
Approximately a month ago my fiancee was diagnosed with trich. I immediately went to my doctor & had a swab test done & was negative of all stds. I still took the treatment. We've had sex since & she had wet test today it was negative. Her ob is doing pap tests different this year. I haven't even as much as kissed another woman in the 13 years that we've been together. Please help me believe she's been faithful.
Thank you for your response. The first positive results were determined from a urine sample. The second were from a pap smear. I'm not sure what "wet prep" or "saline preparation" is as far as the type of test. Ex: wet prep might equal urine sample?
After taking the medication, and being retested during my annual, again vaginal exam / pap smear, no urine test was done, the results were negative.
Blood work was also done and I have to go back in to discuss the results. All I have been told so far is "high fasting glucose". I will ask to be retested because we have had sex twice since the last negaive test. Should I request "wet prep" or "saline preparation"? What exactly (if I may ask ...I don't want to over do my welcome) takes place with either of these test? Ex: would "wet prep" = urine test? Please excuse my ignorace ...just things I've never thought to ask. I will research.
Again Thank you for your responses.
Sorry, I misunderstood. I thought your prominent symptoms occurred this time, not 10 yr ago. The more subtle symptoms are consistent with a chronic infection that only now showed up on a lab test. Also, I didn't think to ask about what test was done. If trichomonas organisms were observed on a pap smear, that is a very unreliable test and likely you don't have it at all. If your doctor did a "wet prep" or "saline preparation" and living trich were seen under the microscope, you definitely have it.
As I said above, you should not draw any definite conclusions about your husband's fidelity based on this business, even if your trich diagnosis is firm.
"That your symptoms came on abruptly and were so prominent suggests a new infection, not chronic carriage of the organism. "
The first infection 10 years ago had very prominent symptoms. However the current one: I initially thought I had a urinary track infection. ( Which I get about once a year.) I had no discharge, and no order, and no itching"....nothing I considered obvious / prominent symptoms, nothing like the first one at all.
Due to the "lack" of symptoms, and what I thought was a monogamous relationship led me to the internet for research. Much of what I found was:
"Out-of-the blue (re)appearance of trichomonas seems to be particularly common in people in their 40s and 50s, often without either partner being unfaithful. "
However I am now not convinced about the monogamy of our relationship. That is a discussion we will have and be "retested"
I thank you for help and guidance.
I forgot to comment on your age. Out-of-the blue (re)appearance of trichomonas seems to be particuarly common in people in their 40s and 50s, often without either partner being unfaithful. Whether menopause has something to do with it hasn't been studied.