The situation is:
I was diagnosed with herpes earlier this month. I am ABSOLUTELY sure I got it from partner (off and on for 3 years or so). After the doctor's visit, he 'finally' informs me that he 'has had a cold sore before'. So this is why I feel I got it from him because we were sexually active earlier this month and he did perform oral sex on me. Being that he 'has had cold sores' before, that means he more than likely has HSV1... does this now mean that I have genital HSV1? or is it possible for him (with oral HSV1) to transmit genital HSV2 to me?