If you are having side effects from the meds, ask your doc for another one.
No, you don't have to ejaculate in her to pass it, but there does need to be an exchange of fluids, and pre-seminal fluid would count.
No, she doesn't have to have symptoms, and probably wouldn't get any.
AJ
I haven't had sex with her in 40 days.....so, I realize it's possible she may reinfect me if we have sex again. My fear is once I get better and do have sex with her....I'll get reinfected. So, I am asking what are the odds that she is asymptomatic? She hasn't had any symptoms. I am being treated currently with erythromycin.....so I should be better soon. How does it get transmitted? Do I have to ejaculate in her? Or have pre ***? Or, can it transfer from just the tip of my penis? I am very nervous. I think the erythromycin side effects is contributing to my nerves. I really screwed up.
Thanks
Its possible you did give it to your wife, and she would need to be treated. She might have re-infected you.
AJ