I am in a strictly monogamous homosexual relationship. About 2 weeks ago I began experiencing symptoms of an STI (redness of opening to urethra, burning pain when urinating, some whitish discharge). I went to the clinic at the university I attend and, after an examination, was treated for gonorrhea and chlamydia. I also had urinalysis done. The results of the urinalysis came back positive for gonorrhea.
Now, I have only had one sexual partner and we have been in a monogamous relationship for over a year now. I have never been with anyone else, and he insists that he has been completely faithful, and I have reason to believe him. I understand that for gonorrhea to be present, it must have been contracted from a third party. But, is it possible that the urinalysis used (I am now waiting for the results of a more detailed culture test) could have been wrong? Two or three days before symptoms appeared, we had unprotected anal sex, and there was a significantly large amount of fecal matter present. My penis was covered in the liquid mixture of broken up fecal matter and lubrication. We immediately stopped and cleaned ourselves. Is it possible that the infection was a result of this event, and not actually gonorrhea transmitted from a third party? Or is this just hopeful thinking that he has in fact remained faithful? Thank you.
an urinalysis wouldn't detect gonorrhea. I'm guessing perhaps they did a gram stain with it or at least gonorrhea testing and not just an urinalysis.
having had anal sex and had fecal matter on you didn't give you a false positive for gonorrhea.
bottom line is - you and your partner both need to seek out treatment for gonorrhea. currently an IM shot of ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment. if you and your partner are having unprotected sex and didn't seek out full std testing prior to your relationship, you should both be covering that base too. make sure that it includes type specific herpes igg blood testing too.
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