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Urine testing STD

I have recently been tested for Chlamydia & gonorrhea after a low risk episode (no penetration, just frottage). When I got to the doctors i had not urinated for some time (2 hours), so i asked the doctor for a sample jar while i was waiting. I was under the impression that a mid stream sample was required and so thats what I produced. The doctor then told me that I infact needed a initial void sample, so I then produced that only 20 minutes after the first mid stream sample. the doctor indicated that he would use the initial sample to test for a UTI and the 2nd sample to Test for STD's. I am now concerned that the samples I provided were produced to close together and that the fact that the initial sample was  a midstream sample may have also proved pointless. Please let me know if I can consider the negative results accurate as I have a small amount of discomfort at the tip of my penis, not when urinating but periodically through out the day 9this is the only symptom I have)
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Thanks much appreciated
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I can't speak for a Dr I can only guess because he is under the same thought as myself that the risk was really zero that he was just doing the testing for your piece of mind and did not see a need to test.
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Can you suggest why doctor would allow this? Perhaps because he knew my risk was low or because modern test are resonably sensative?
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The test is not ideal because you want the first urine of the day or no urination 2 hours before. But you really had no risk for a STD from what you describe. You can test again if you want but I would not worry to much about it.
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