Dear Drs,
I am a white, 38yo hetero male, no IDU, uncircumcised, clear of STD’s. I am married and my wife is pregnant.
I travelled to the States for trip that coincided with Spring Break. Last wednesday, went to an upscale night club and met an attractive 23 year old woman, mixed native american and white (not AA); from Niagara county; appeared fit and healthy. She was not a student but employed by a spring break tour company.
She was with friends - i.e. she didn't appear to be searching for men. Later she accompanied me to my hotel. During frontage in a hot tub, I momentarily pushed my penis into her vagina. In total, there were approx 3 small thrusts, with no more than 50% penetration. This lasted only a few secs - certainly less than 5 secs before I withdrew. This took place under water. I then asked her if we could have sex without a condom - she replied ‘no - wait until tmrw’. I asked this to see if she normally practices safe sex; that said, she didn’t freak out when I did penetrate her. I met her again 2 days later and we had unprotected oral both ways and fully protected vaginal sex.
I don't know her STI status, have no reason to believe she was an IDU or HIV+. She said she had not slept with anyone the month she had been there. I did not ask her STD status.
I I am concerned at STD risk from the brief unprotected penetration. I am not sure if her background, the very short duration, or the hot tub are relevant factors to my risk. Am i 1/1000?
5d post I have had a cold (no fever) (caused by climate and travel?)
5d post - very small red marks on the underside of the penis head (caused by masturbation without lube?). Cleared in 24hrs
8d post (now) diarrhoea, stomach cramps, heartburn, no appetite.
I would greatly appreciate your review of my exposure risk and the course of action i should take. While i intend to abstain from intercourse with my wife, I would also appreciate your opinion on the necessity/duration of doing so.
Thankyou.