Worrying

[paterson567]

Afternoon Doctors.

Hoping you can help. Here is my situation.

In the past for the past 3 years I have had unprotected oral sex with men roughly 12 times and have given unprotected oral sex roughly 5 times. I have never displayed any symptoms of ghonrrea or clymdia.

I have had a girlfriend for 25 months and these are events I have regretted.

I have been tested for Clyamidia and Ghonorrea roughly 10 times since November 2010 both PCR swab of throat and PCR urine test. Everything has been negative.

At the beginning of our relationship whilst my girlfriend was on the pill, we had unprotected sex. However, within 4-5 months, she came off the pill and since then we use condoms.

I was worried about if I had the bacteria infection and transmitted it to her when he had unprotected oral sex or penetrative vaginal sex and then it subsequently cleared.

My GP told me I am worrying unnecessary as although one may not have symptoms of Clyamidia and Ghonorrea, the bacteria would still be present and would have been picked up on the urine test as the PCR test is so very sensitive. I was worried about clearing the bacteria following our unprotected sex. (My gf has never displayed any discharge or anything. Parson the expression, but she is rather tight and sometimes because of my penis size, it can cause her discomfort when we have sex and not being having it recently)

However from my reading it appears people can have the bacteria for years and not realise and subsequently this is only discovered on a test. This tells me that my worries about having the bacteria then clearing it are irrational.

My GP also said that Clym rarely infects the throat and ghonorrea clears quickly as the conditions are not right for the bacteria to survive e.g. saliva. And even if I did have it then it is not readily transmitted when performing oral sex on women.

Hoping you can provide some relief from my worry.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

I am sorry. Answering these totally unfounded questions out of context is meaningless an of no benefit to you.  I have already told you that persons with untreated chlamydia can clear their infections without antibiotics. Trying to consider all of the "what if" scenarios is a waste of time.  

This thread is now over.  EWH

[paterson567]

Thank you Dr.

Perhaps you could answer these two questions please?

Have you ever seen a patient like me who in turn actually had it and cleared the bacteria??? I was simply worried about transferring it to my gf and then clearing it.

If my GF were to have had it, and the fact she has not had symptoms, could she clear it and typically, when do people clear the bacteria themselves???

The fact that she has never experienced symptoms in 2 years if good evidence that she does not have it as I would have thought at some point in the two years it would have manifested itself.

Thank you.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Correct.  I see no evidence that you were ever infected from what you ahve written.  I urge you to move forward. EWH

[paterson567]

Hello Dr. Hook. Thank you for replying.

I take it from the above, that you think I have never actually had it in the first place when combining everything that you have said.

Have you ever seen a patient like me who in turn actually had it and cleared the bacteria? I was simply worried about transferring it to my gf and then clearing it.

The way I see it is: clymdia never or rarely infects the throat and if it does it goes away and is difficult to transmit. Ghonorrea whilst it does infect the throat, tends to go away by itself and is also difficult to transmit.

Therefore, it would be difficult, especially in the absence of symptoms all these times to have actually had it in the first place (assuming that the people had it, and that isn't likely).

As for my giving of the oral sex, the above applies. clym rare if ever infects the mouth and ghonorrea clears up by itself. I have also been told that it is exceptionally rare for the bacteria to be transferred from mouth to vagina due to the fact that the bacteria infect the cervix which is not reached when performing cunninglingus and saliva kills bacteria. Have there been cases or is this theoretical?

If my GF were to have had it, and the fact she has not had symptoms, could she clear it and typically, when do people clear the bacteria themselves? I read on another post that if she were to have PID she would be symptomatic which she is not.

All in all, as a recap, you believe that in your medical expertise (which is great) that I have not been infected, and I should continue intercourse with my partner and put this at ease? If you were in my position, with the medical expertise that you possess would you forget about ever possibly infecting your female partner and continue with your relationship?

Thanks Dr.

Thanks Dr Hook.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Welcome to the Forum. I agree with your doctor.  Most people do not have gonorrhea or chlamydia and of those who do, most do not have throat infections. Furthermore, most exposures to infected partners do not lead to infection.  Finally, had you become infected, it is most likely that you would have developed symptoms. When you combine these facts with the fact that you have had multiple negative tests at both sites of exposure, you can be entirely clear that you did not acquire an STD from the exposures you describe.

it is time for you to stop worrying and move on. Further testing is a complete waste of time and money. EWH

[paterson567]

I should also say that one of the men performed the fellation on my maybe 6-7 times and he told me that he was clean and is tested regularly and he also has a long term girl friend too. He said his job required him to have screening and had one last month and everything was A-OK.

[paterson567]

Sorry meant to say, would you think that if my GF were to have had ghonorrea or clymidia from 2 years ago, then by now she would have displayed symptoms?

Have you come across a case like mine before?