Someone close to me called and told me that her husband went to a walk in clinic and he had (1) a high fever; (2) severe sore throat; (3) white cell count was twice what it should be;(4) his muscles were sore and tense;(5) he was very sluggish and cramped all over.
A week later, my loved one got the same symptoms and she is suffering much more. Her gyn told her upon a visual examination that she had both genital herpes and genital warts.
My question is does this sound like the first partner had just contacted the viruses and gave them to his wife. The wifes doctor told her she had recently contacted the virus and it was inital breakout.
The husband is trying to make the wife feel responsible, thinking that she had it for a long time and had just given it to him. She should not carry the load for his infidelities and lack of sexual control.
Does it sound like the viruses were just contacted and that was an initial reaction like the gyn said?
The thing with gential herpes is that it could be in the system for a while without showing any signs. It would be very hard for a doctor to just tell her without a blood test(which would detect anitbodies and these take aleast 3months after exposure to show up) that she was recently infected. It would really come down to when was the last time they both did their Std panel... Because if she was clean at her last test then chances would be he did infact give her the virus. Based also on my reading it's much lower for a female to past the virus on to a male than vice-versa...
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