My wife and I live in different countries (I am in the United Kingdom, she is in Siberia, Russia), so when we meet we make up for lost time. The last time we met, 3 days later she developed adominal pains, which may have been due to kidney stones, and started passing cloudy urine. She had many checks including STI which came back positive for mycoplasma. She assumes the infection has come from me.
I immediately took a test and the results came back negative, however, I have since discovered the NHS do not check for mycoplasma.
We have been together for 2 years and I have not caused an infection before, also she had an STI check last June which came back negative.
My first question is can I really be carrying this infection (if I am I would have had to have had it from one of my previous relationships, the last of which ended 4 years ago), and if so, why have I not infected her before?
I informed my STI clinic about the results of her test and they have put me on a two week course of doxycycline to make. However, her treatment in extremely different. The course lasts a month and consists of the following:
Genferon, Ornidazol-vero, Tergynan, Unidox, Hapabene, Bifiform, Gentamicin, Zetamax-retard, Fluconazole and Extractum aloes fluidum (this last one is taken by injection). From googling those, zetamax has azithromycin which seems to be the 'other' abtibiotic commonly used to treat mycoplasma infections.
She has a full course for me, too (using Vitpost instead of Tergynan) and wants to DHL them to me to use instead of the doxycycline. My clinic admit to being out of their depth when I asked for their opinion on this.
I would really like to know why she needs to have such a vast amount of different drugs? I realise some of them are to treat the symptoms and I don't need to do this because I am not displaying any symptoms at all. Also the Hepabene is a supportive drug to help protect the immune system when taking the other drugs and my wife is almost disgusted with the UK's prescription to not include supportive drugs with the doxycycline. As far as I can tell, I see no point? Doxycycline is also branded Vibramycin which is something I had prescribed in my late teens to combat acne and I never suffered any side effects then.
Can anyone advise? I have no way of knowing if I carry this infection without paying to be tested, so I can't tell if this is my fault or not. Is this infection sexually transmitted exclusively? Could an infection have happened even if I am clean? I have read women are more prone to these types of infections due to a shorter urinary tract and it's proximity to the anus and our does include anal sex, although we have swapped between having vaginal and then anal sex, we have never done that the other way round. Could I have helped cause the infection without actually carrying it myself?
This is very detailed and looking for a lot. I do not have enough knowledge to help you with most of this. I would advise both of you to talk to your Dr's about this. The best info I can find online says that this is vaginal bacteria and makes no reference to a STD.
I see, Sorry I missed the Horminis, You are correct... the problem is that PCR blood testing is not the best way to get tested for Chlamydia and or NGU, this is not the most accurate testing as it can be interferred with the Mycoplasma. Your wife would need a swab or a urine test to have an accurate result but she has already had the meds so any testing would not be accurate.
Well we aren't to really give advice on treatment as this should be discussed with the health care provider but it would appear that they over treated her.. I would have her ask her doctor what those meds were for.
Whilst I cannot get test for mycoplasma genitalium in this country without paying extortinate fees, today I saw a doctor who has been involved in testing for mycoplasma in STI trials and performed a swab to look for non-specific urethritis (also known as non-gonococcal urethritis) and I have tested clear of any infection. My wife is not impressed and insists the tests are too hard to show infection in men when they may be carriers. She also has a very low opinion of Western medicine compared to Russian...
Anyway, I am absolutely convinced I do not have a mycoplasma infection and have not passed one onto my wife. Looking into possible other causes I have come to the conclusion that the vaginal spermicidal tablets she used have caused her problems (usually she would be on the normal pill, but because my last visit was a late minute opportunity to go, there was no time to start the course). She has never used these before and a couple of sites I have looked at cite this possibility.
"Most UTIs are caused by faecal bacteria such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Proteus or enterococci. Occasionally, yeasts or certain mycoplasma-like organisms may be involved.
Faecal bacteria from the perineum ascend into the vulva, urethra and bladder, often at the time of coitus. Risk factors include sexual intercourse, spermicide use, frequent courses of antibiotics, low levels or lack of estrogen, and incomplete bladder emptying."
What do you think? I wouldn't want to for one second say I have worked out the cause for her infection where trained medical professionals have not, but in light of my test proving negative and the spermicidal tablet being used for the very first time in her life... She's got this somehow!
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