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STDs (Expert Forum)
penile discharge, maybe?
Answered by
University of Washington
Seattle - WA
Welcome to the STD Forum, which is intended only for questions and support pertaining to sexually transmitted diseases other than HIV/AIDS, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, human papillomavirus, genital warts, trichomonas, other vaginal infections, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), cervicitis, molluscum contagiosum, chancroid, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). All questions will be answered by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. or Edward W Hook, MD.
penile discharge, maybe?
by enquiringmind, Mar 11, 2005 12:00AM
Dr. H,
I am a 33 year-old married male that strayed from my marraige a little over six months ago when I received unprotected oral sex from a female. I know this is a low-risk activity but to be safe, I went to my local STD clinic (21 days after exposure) to get tested just to make sure I didn't pick up anything. I had a urethral swab done which the nurse said showed I did not have 1) trich 2) gonnorhea and 3) indicated my WBC was less than 5. From my reading online, I think this "answer within 10 minutes" test must have been a gram stain. I also had blood and urine samples taken and found out some weeks later that chlamydia and gonnorhea tested negative (NAAT urine test I think) and that I also was neg for Hep B, syphillis, and HIV. Yesterday, I felt a wet spot in my underpants and went to the bathroom to check things out. I am wondering if what I had was penile discharge. It seemed clear, and sticky... very much like precum, but I wasn't aroused beforehand, so it has made me suspicious. I have perhaps also noticed this on a couple of occassions the last two months. My questions are:
1) Does a gram stain test which is negative for gonnorhea and a urine test negative for gonnorhea conclusively prove I do not have gonnorhea?
2) Some websites say Chlamydia is something I could have gotten through oral, but you (and my local clinc) say it doesn't happen. Can I completely trust the urine test I had for Chlamydia?
3) Does WBC <5 prove I don't have NGU from something else as well?
4) What do you make of my recent discharge?
Thank you very much for the forum!
I am a 33 year-old married male that strayed from my marraige a little over six months ago when I received unprotected oral sex from a female. I know this is a low-risk activity but to be safe, I went to my local STD clinic (21 days after exposure) to get tested just to make sure I didn't pick up anything. I had a urethral swab done which the nurse said showed I did not have 1) trich 2) gonnorhea and 3) indicated my WBC was less than 5. From my reading online, I think this "answer within 10 minutes" test must have been a gram stain. I also had blood and urine samples taken and found out some weeks later that chlamydia and gonnorhea tested negative (NAAT urine test I think) and that I also was neg for Hep B, syphillis, and HIV. Yesterday, I felt a wet spot in my underpants and went to the bathroom to check things out. I am wondering if what I had was penile discharge. It seemed clear, and sticky... very much like precum, but I wasn't aroused beforehand, so it has made me suspicious. I have perhaps also noticed this on a couple of occassions the last two months. My questions are:
1) Does a gram stain test which is negative for gonnorhea and a urine test negative for gonnorhea conclusively prove I do not have gonnorhea?
2) Some websites say Chlamydia is something I could have gotten through oral, but you (and my local clinc) say it doesn't happen. Can I completely trust the urine test I had for Chlamydia?
3) Does WBC <5 prove I don't have NGU from something else as well?
4) What do you make of my recent discharge?
Thank you very much for the forum!
Doctor's Answer
by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Mar 12, 2005 12:00AM
, Mar 12, 2005 12:00AM
Occasional discharge of completely clear fluid may not mean anything at all. The urethra produces a certain amount of mucus; also, although not aroused at the time you noticed the discharge, if you had been aroused any time in the past and not urinated between then and now, there could be spontaneous discharge of small amounts of pre-ejaculate fluid. The key is clear: completely clear mucus probably doesn't mean infection, but cloudy or milky or yellowish is a different story.
1) Yes. It would be extrarodinarily rare to have gonorrhea and a negative urine test and gram stained smear.
2) Tell me what web site(s) say chlamydia can be acquired by oral sex and I'll send them a message. It doesn't happen.
3) Yes--especially if it's not just under 5 WBC, but if the examiner saw no WBC at all, or only rare ones.
4) See opening comments.
Good luck-- HHH, MD
1) Yes. It would be extrarodinarily rare to have gonorrhea and a negative urine test and gram stained smear.
2) Tell me what web site(s) say chlamydia can be acquired by oral sex and I'll send them a message. It doesn't happen.
3) Yes--especially if it's not just under 5 WBC, but if the examiner saw no WBC at all, or only rare ones.
4) See opening comments.
Good luck-- HHH, MD
Chlamydia is listed as a risk of receiving oral sex:
http://www.dph.sf.ca.us/sfcityclinic/stdbasics/stdchart.asp
Possible, but unlikely:
http://www.chlamydiatreatment.us/chlamydia.html
http://www.ashastd.org/stdfaqs/chlamydia.html
So I gather, it is theoretically possible, but in your opinion, it does not happen in reality. Would that be correct?