Posted By cam on February 13, 1999 at 22:52:53:
I am wondering after 40+years of having no "outward signs of bladder problems why now I would be unable to empty out and have to "push" to release the bladder contents. As far as I know, I have always had
nerveNerve biopsy
Nerve conduction velocity endings that have worked and even though I have the lower L4 and L5 spinal area affected, I have "had" up to this point full function of bladder and bowels ( along with full function of the legs. Is there any research done on the middle aged
spinaMeningocele repair
Myelomeningocele
Spina bifida
Spina bifida (degrees of severity)
Spina bifida - resources bifida
womenWomen's way and is there any reason for a neuralogical change to occur in the 40's. I have had no biological children and have had no surgeries since childhood.
No reocurring infections up untill the past 3 months when they started checking me for retention ( cath. I think, was causing the infections).