Before continuting I am going to say that this e-mail is very specific and graphic (though in a medical sense). I am a 30 year old man in a committed relationship with my wife. Here is my background. After undergoing chemotherapy and radiation when I was 14-15 years old, I discovered just last year that I have a sperm count of a little over 1,000,000 and the motility is low (do not know the exact amount). I had sex with my wife this past August (2nd week thereabouts) using a spermicidal condom. The condom broke either during intercourse or afterwards (not sure). This took place about Day 9 or Day 10 of her cycle (her average has ranged from 35 days to as long as 46 days). Since that time, she has had a urinary tract infection and a cold. What is the likelihood that I impregnated her given my sperm count and her factors? I am extremely concerned about this.