Hi everyone.... I have been with my boyfriend for 4 years, he's 31 and im 26. For the first year, we used condoms when we had sex, and there was always semen in the condom afterwards. But after the first year, i started taking the contraceptive pill, so we do not use condoms anymore... With previous partners i have always "leaked" semen after sexual intercourse with no condom, and i know that is perfectly normal.. but is it normal to NOT leak any?? With my current partner, i have only "leaked" semen a handful of times in the 3 years since we stopped using condoms... Most of the time there is no leakage from my vagina afterwards atall! ... Does this mean he is not ejaculating inside me?? Has he been faking the majority of his orgasms for the last 3 years?? We have sex on average twice a week, we always enjoy lots of forepllay beforehand and he releases 'pre-***' during oral and manual sex... We use a variety of sexual positions, and he is always very keen and excitable... He initiates sex most of the time, he "cums" within a few minutes of vaginal penetration and always appears to be satisfied afterwards... If it wasnt for the lack of leakage from me afterwards, id have no doubts what so ever that he was satisfied with our sex life, but because i rarely leak afterwards im worried this is not the case... I have raised the subject with him before, and he assures me that he always reached climax, but im worried that he is just saying that so as not to offend me... Surely there should be physical evidence of this?? As they say "what goes up must come down" ... But it very rarely does, so i have my doubts.... Any opinions would be much appriciated! Many thanks in advance xx