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STDs  (Expert Forum)
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PID question
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University of Washington Seattle - WA
This forum does not cover AIDS/HIV issues. This forum is for questions and support regarding STD issues such as: Chlamydia, Crabs (pubic lice scabies), Gonorrhea, Hepatitis (viral), Herpes, HPV, Molluscum Contagiosum, PID, Rectal Infections, Syphilis, Trichomonas, Warts, Yeast Infection.

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PID question

by nhlpens, May 12, 2005 12:00AM
Hello,

I was just treated for epidydimitis due to a sports injury,  but the doctor gave me doxycycline for 7 days and I didnt miss a dose of it and the pain went away although I didnt have any swelling from the epidydimitis so it must not have been severe.  I had sex with my wife shortly after I was done with my treatment,  but it was protected sex,  the last time we had unprotected sex was on valentines day of this year.  Now recently she has been complaining of pain in her lower abdominal region on the left side only.  She hasnt had any back pain,  and I dont think she has had a fever.  My question is,  what are the chances that this is PID from the V-day unprotected sex we had which was before I was treated for epidydimitis?  Is it possible for me to pass this bacteria to her,  or did I somehow aquire an STD and pass it to her,  because about 7 months prior to that I had unprotected oral sex and was tested for gon, and clay and they came back negative,  do you think that the epidydimitis is the later effects of an STD and not a sport injury?  Any advice is greatly appreciated.

thanks very much

by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., May 12, 2005 12:00AM
How certain was your doctor about the diagnosis of epididymitis?  Pain only, without swelling, makes t he diagnosis questionable.  In any case, epididymitis does not result from injury.  If you had a definite blow to the groin and your testicle hurt immediately and swelled within an  hour or two, I'll buy the injury concept. Otherwise, if you definitely had epididymitis it was not due to injury.  And your doc probably would not have prescribed doxycycline if there was no suspicion of infection.  The most common causes of epididymitis in men under 35 years old are chlamydia and gonorrhea.  You should have been tested for them--but since you say nothing about that, I assume tests weren't done.



As you suggest, your wife's low abdominal pain is consistent with PID, but oots of other things cause such pain.  Putting together her symptoms with yours, you are right to be concerrned about an STD--but my guess is that she doesn't have PID or any other STD.  As you suggest, a single episode of oral sex is unlikely to be the source of any infection, and I'm sure your tests 7 months ago were accurate.  And you could not have infected your wife by having protected sex after completing treatment.  Chlamydia--and much less frequently, gonorrhea--can persist for months or even years, especially in women--but it's uncommon.



If your wife's pain persists or worsens, or if she develops vaginal discharge or fever, she will need to see her health care provider.  If PID is then diagnosed, your medical history and both of your sexual risks will have to be considered.  But I don't think you need reveal anything unless/until that happens.



Good luck--  HHH, MD



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