HIV Stats - Paranoia

[abc1]

Hello,

Recently I've heard a lot of numbers being thrown around in terms of percentages of contracting HIV from certain contact. I just need clarification on a few of those. What are the chances (i.e., "1 in a _____") of the MALE contracting HIV (obviously assuming the FEMALE is positive) :



1) during heterosexual unprotected vaginal intercourse w/ejaculation.

2) during heterosexual unprotected vaginal intercourse that lasts literally only for 5-10 seconds w/out ejaculation. this happened to me recently (although i dont think the girl was positive) and i'm wondering, assuming she was positive, are we talking like 1 in a 500? 1000? 10,000? more?

3) during heterosexual protected vaginal intercourse w/ejaculation.



could you help me out with this? thanks!

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

There are no data to answer your questions with precision.  The 1 in 1000 risk applies to most men having sex with infected women, but no information is availabe on the influence of duration of intercourse, variable risk with or without ejaculation, etc.  And the actual risk can often be much higher or much lower than 1 in 1000, depending on many factors that usually are not known:  duration/stage of infection, herpes in either partner, other STDs, circumcision status, use of antiviral therapy by the infected person, and others.



Best wishes--  HHH, MD

[Imdumb]

The doc has said before the odds for the man are 1 in 1000 for unprotected vaginal sex assuming the female is positive. Obviously, the shorter the sexual contact the less risky.



Odds for protected vaginal are zero. HIV will not pass through a latex condom.

[abc1]

Thanks for the answer to 1 and 2. What about the odds for protected vaginal, question number 3? Are we talking 1 in a million?

[ebro]

we're talking too low to be concerned