A related discussion,
sore penis after urinating was started.
If you test negative all is well and no need to tell the wife. If you test positive then of coarse she must go get treated.
The thing is, I highly doubt you have chlamydia. The only thing even possible that you could pass to your wife is gonnorrea and maybe HSV-1, and you do not have HSV-1 symptoms. The doc has said many times that chlamydia is not passed from receiving oral. Since it is the number 1 STD, they would certainly see millions of cases where it was passed orally if it was possible to do so. You say the discharge may have been urine - so it isn't for sure there was even a dischage. Lots of guys get guilt and anxiety that becomes "irritaion at the tio of the penis" and they test negative for everything. It could possibly be iritation form normal oral bacteria, but if it is that, your wife is not at risk.
Bottom line is wait for the test result and go from there. I bet your results are negative and you can forget it and move on.
Thank Dr. HHH
"...However, you say nothing about sexual exposures prior to 12/29/05. If you have had unprotected gential or anal sex in the past year, you could have chlamydia that predated the oral exposure you mention..."
No unprotected vaginal or anal sex in the past 12 years.
"...Since you had sex with your wife after the probable date you were infected, she needs to be examined and treated. Assuming you don't have chlamydia, you may not have anything that can harm your wife; it might be caused by entirely normal oral bacteria. But you cannot count on that and you have a responsibility to protect her health...."
Before or after my test results?
thanks
"Did they test you?"
Yes they did, today. I won't have the results for awhile.
"You can't get Chlamydia from receiving oral."
That was my understanding as well from reading the posts on this site. The clinician said it's possible that a person infected with Chlamydia can pass it orally; her words, not mine.
"...But if all you did was oral, that is not what you had."
or have....For the record, all I did was recieve oral.
Did they test you? You can't get Chlamydia from receiving oral.
It is my undertanding that chlamydia is transmissable within hours of acquiring it. But if all you did was oral, that is not what you had.
The data behind my statements about non-transmission of chlamydia by oral sex are strong. Chlamydia of the throat is rare; when present may not be readily transmissible; and no study has ever shown urethral chlamydia to be acquired by fellatio. It may occur, but if so it is rare. HOWEVER, many STD clinic workers and other clinicians believe oral sex transmits chlamydia and advise patients accordingly. They are making assumptions that seem likely, since in almost all ways chlamydia does pretty much what gonorrhea does. But in this case they are wrong.
It sounds like you indeed had nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), but it will be a surprise if your chlamydia test is positive. (However, you say nothing about sexual exposures prior to 12/29/05. If you have had unprotected gential or anal sex in the past year, you could have chlamydia that predated the oral exposure you mention.)
Since you had sex with your wife after the probable date you were infected, she needs to be examined and treated. Assuming you don't have chlamydia, you may not have anything that can harm your wife; it might be caused by entirely normal oral bacteria. But you cannot count on that and you have a responsibility to protect her health.
This is one STD I know something about. See my editorial in the latest edition of the Journal of Infectious Diseases: http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/JID/journal/issues/v193n3/35538/35538.web.pdf
Best wishes-- HHH, MD