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STDs  (Expert Forum)
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Herpes dormancy
Answered by
University of Washington Seattle - WA
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Herpes dormancy

by gary2541, Oct 07, 2007 06:03PM
I was diagnosed with genital herpes last week. I am 64 years old and have been married for 22 years. I know absolutely that I have done nothing in the last 25 years to put me in danger of contracting herpes. I also believe that my wife has been just as faithful to me. I have never had any type of outbreak in the past. Is it possible that I was exposed to the herpes virus more that 25 years ago and am only having my first outbreak at this time. About five years ago my wife started having outbreaks of shingles on her buttocks. Other than that neither of us have had any significant medical problems.

by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Oct 07, 2007 10:30PM
Yes, it certainly is possible you were infected 25 years ago and only now developed symptoms.  Or your wife might have been infected for all those years, but transmission only now occurred for the first time.

The way you describe your wife's history suggests she has had several outbreaks of herpes zoster (shingles).  Shingles sometimes recurs in the same area a second time or maybe (rarely) a third time, but it does not keep coming back.  If your wife has had several outbreaks, my bet is that she has HSV-2 infection, not shingles.  The two conditions look very much the same, except herpes (HSV-2) is typically more localized and shingles more widespread.  One buttock or the others is a common site for recurrent genital herpes outbreaks.  If that's what she has, she probably should be on suppressive treatment with valacyclovir (Valtrex) to prevent future recurrences.

She should discuss it with her doctor; tests can sort out which infection she has.  My bet is that both you and your wife has been infected since before you were married. In other words, even if she and you are sharing a genital herpes infection, there is no reason for either of you to question the other's fidelity.

Good luck--  HHH, MD
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