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Ureaplasma symptoms

by Blackpelican, May 12, 2008 02:38PM
you said you got tested and came up positive for ureaplasma.  Did you have symptoms?  Or are you saying you were tested for Chlamydia?  Reason being...I had discharge.  I went to the doctor after taking 1g of Azrithromycin.  Discharge was gone by time I saw docter.  Yet, he prescribed me 3g of Azithromycin, 2g of Flagyl, and 500 mg X2 per day of Cipro.  Killer diarrhea.  Gave me an anal fissure....and frequency of urination, burn, and redness of penis tip were my symptoms.  I got tested 3 times for STDs...yet all negative.  Doctors told me I was fine....it was in my head.  Urologist gave me something to calm the spasms.  So, I had sex with my wife.  Only once....and it didn't last long.  Finally, went to another doc..who told me I had mycoplasma and/or ureaplasma....giving me the pain.  Gave me Erythromycin 400mg x2 per day for 14 days.  

My question...it's been 42 days since my wife and I had sex.  She is showing no symptoms.  I am still in testicular pain....but the urgency to pee is still there.  I am hoping the first round of medications gave me another infection....not of the STD nature as the 2nd urologist said you can't test for Ureaplasma.  It's too small to detect.  So, what are my chances of giving my wife Mycoplasma or ureaplasma.....if that is what I had.  Could she be Asymptomatic?  I can't go through another round of antibiotics...already lost 15lbs.  They suck!  Yet, I can't afford a divorce....I love my wife...just made a mistake I'll never make again.  Thanks!


This discussion is related to Ureaplasma?.
Member Comments (3)

by auntiejessi, May 12, 2008 06:47PM
Its possible you did give it to your wife, and she would need to be treated.  She might have re-infected you.

AJ

by Blackpelican, May 13, 2008 08:21AM
To: AJ
I haven't had sex with her in 40 days.....so, I realize it's possible she may reinfect me if we have sex again.  My fear is once I get better and do have sex with her....I'll get reinfected.  So, I am asking what are the odds that she is asymptomatic?  She hasn't had any symptoms.  I am being treated currently with erythromycin.....so I should be better soon.  How does it get transmitted?  Do I have to ejaculate in her?  Or have pre ***?  Or, can it transfer from just the tip of my penis?  I am very nervous.  I think the erythromycin side effects is contributing to my nerves.  I really screwed up.  

Thanks

by auntiejessi, May 13, 2008 11:30AM
If you are having side effects from the meds, ask your doc for another one.

No, you don't have to ejaculate in her to pass it, but there does need to be an exchange of fluids, and pre-seminal fluid would count.

No, she doesn't have to have symptoms, and probably wouldn't get any.

AJ



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