I don't know what to think!!

[fishboy]

I have been seeing my current girlfriend for 3 months, and been having sex with her for the past ten weeks. ( on weekends due to distance) She is the only person I have had sex with in almost 9 months! We were together last weekend, and this Wed. I discovered the dreaded yellowish- green discharge and occasional tingling sensation, but no burning during urination! I had gonorrhea 20 years ago, and had the symptoms within 4 days, just like now, so I knew what was going on! I went to the doctor yesterday to get tested, and got the shot for gonorrhea, and Rx for chlamydia.
      I know my history, I don't know hers as far as when she was last with someone! So my questions are-
1- Is it possible that she has had something for over 3 months, not known about it, and just gave it to me now? Even though we have had sex most weekends for the past 10 weeks?
2- Is it possible that I have had something for over 9 months, not known about it, and somehow just had symptoms now? (I find that hard to believe knowing my body!) I also find it hard to believe this woman stepped out on me knowing her schedule and her personality!
I have done a lot of research and understand how women dont have symptoms as often as men in most cases!
I dont understand where this came from! I dont know what to think!!

[auntiejessi]

Any of the above are possible, though some are more likely than others.

Yes, its possible you are just getting symptoms, but typically symptoms appear within a few weeks of infection if you get symptoms, so it would be unlikely that you would just now get symptoms from 9 months ago.

Its also possible, but not terribly likely, that she had it before.

Have you talked to her about this?  It seems you just might have to believe what she says.  If you had been together for years, I would be giving you different advice, but a few months makes it possible that she had it before.

Aj

[fishboy]

Possible, but not terrible likely, that she had it before? So you mean more likely she got it within the last 3 months? Thats the hard part to deal with!! But it seems like the only logical explanation!
    I have not approached her with this yet, I want to wait until I know for sure what it is (Mon.) I cant rule out a non STD infection that come about on its own, (good lord willing!) and I don't want to make false conclusions or accusations!
    If she did already something before us, shouldn't I have gotten it and had symptoms before the last time we had sex?

[auntiejessi]

Again - most likely, but not absolutely.

There are different stats thrown around about the chances of getting an std from an infected person, but they are all different, depending on the source.  

It is easier for a woman to get an infection from a man, than vice versa, so that leaves some room for you to not have gotten it before.

Did you all talk about std testing before having sex?  Do you know if or when she has been tested?  If she had negative tests before, and is positive now, at least you'll have a timeline of when she might have been infected.

Aj