There are many causes of lower genital tract inflammation in women. Some are sexually acquired, some are not. Since you used a condom with your commercial sex exposure 7 years ago, it is very unlikely you caught any STD; and if you did, most likely it has cleared up by now, even without treatment. I doubt your current partner's health problem has anything to do with your sexual exposure 7 years earlier.
You don't say why you are concerned about LGV in particular. You do not say where you live, but LGV currently is rare in almost all countries. But even if you are in an area where LGV remains common (e.g., parts of sub-Saharan Africa), it is not something that can be carried without symptoms. It is conceivable someone could have infection with an LGV strain of chlamydia without symptoms, but chlamydia never lasts 7 years; if you had been infected with it back then, your immune system cleared up the infection long ago, probably within a year. It cannot cause menginoencephalitis or other complications while being asymptomatic.
If you can get more information about the nature of your partner's health problem, I'll try to provide more information about the possible STD implications. But from all you say here, I see no connection with your past sexual history and no reason for you to be concerned.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
A related discussion,
lgv was started.
Good grief! What can I say to stop your irrational focus on LGV? It is IMPOSSIBLE in this situation. And if your partner has a positive test for chlamydia, gonorrhea, or any other STD, it will not be from your commercial sex event 7 years ago.
I am holding you to your promise. This thread is over.
I promise this is my last question.
My girlfriend's health provider (gynecologist) is making regularly tests (laboratorly) by swabs from her genital (vagina and uterus) for chlamydia or gonorrhea. These tests are negative. Would this tests show also lgv?
None of this makes any difference. I suggest you stop searching the web for highly improbable explanations for your partner's inflammation or anything else. It is not possible that you or she has LGV and I doubt she has any other STD.
If you have further questions, it would be best to ask your partner's health care provider.
And I also found this article on emedicine.
Quotation:
"Tertiary LGV
This stage is characterized by proctocolitis.
Lymphorrhoids or perianal condylomata may be observed on examination of the rectum. These structures appear similar to hemorrhoids and are the result of an obstruction of lymphatics. They are composed of dilated lymph vessels with perilymphatic inflammation.
Rectal examination at this stage also may reveal a granular mucosa and palpable, enlarged lymph nodes under the bowel wall. Stricture usually occurs 2-5 cm above the anocutaneous margin, and digital examination above the stricture may reveal smooth healthy mucosa.
In very late stages, fibrosis and granulomas are characteristic.
- In women, esthiomene (eating away) occurs, which results in hypertrophic, chronic granulomatous enlargement of the vulva and subsequent ulceration. This may not appear for 1-20 years after the primary infection.
- In men, elephantiasis of the genitalia can occur."
End of Quotation.
But can this occur without other earlier symptoms?
Thank you doctor. You helped me very much. I live in the middle europe. I was concerned about LGV because I have excepted other STDs after reading this web site especially this forum. But I didn't find here too much about LGV as about other STDs. And on wikipedia is written that elephantiasis can occur 1-20 years after primary infection. Is there a mistake?
My girlfriend had inflammation or something like that 6 months ago. The Gynecologist has found it by swab (test). So after some time he did her another swab and she was healthy (no inflammation). He would tell us about some STD if he finds it. Is it true that if he hasn't found chlamydia by the swab she can't have LGV?