My surgical biopsy indicated that I had fibrocystic change (fibrosis, microsyst formation, apocrine metaplasia and papillomatosis with associated calciumm oxalate crystals)
ductal hyperplasia without atypia
No evidence of carcinoma.
My surgeon told me that none of the above were directly associated with an increase risk in breast cancer, but added that because there were various changes in my breast, that alone could be an indicator that my breasts were more prone to change, and would consequently be at more risk. In researching the terms, it appears to me that the increased risk is about 2 x what it would be if I did not have the changes. Is this correct?
Also, since I have evidence of hyperplasia, what is the likelihood of the hyperplasia developing into atypical hyperplasia, a much higher risk factor than non-atyipcal?
I have a family history of metastatic breast cancer (my mother). Would my sisters be more likely to have the same risks?
Thanks very much.