If no condom is used it can be transmitted.
Thanks, appreciate your response! Can I bother with a clarification?
Everything I've read seems pretty clear infected male can spread through oral to female because fluids, but by same logic seems like it would not be spread from female to male this way. No fluid from female to male. Is this wishful thinking?
"Chlamydia is spread “fluid to fluid” meaning an infected person’s secretions need to come in contact with the mucous membranes or blood stream of another."
"These bacteria are found in the semen and vaginal fluids of people with the infection."
I am not clear, were you diagnosed with chlamydia? How were you diagnosed? What treatment did you have?
