My husband has suffered with severe colitis for four years now. We have been living together for two years. In the last 4 months I have developed the exact same symptoms as he has. I am awaiting investigations that are booked for Feb 2012. My husband's consultant is insistent that this is not transmissible but it is a rather strange coincidence. There is no family history of this disorder in my family. Is there any evidence, published or otherwise, that would explain this?