Dr. Rockoff- I really need your opinion on the following matter. I had the dermatologist look at the lesions in the groin area, and clinically he mentioned that they looked like skin tags, and because they were in the inguinal area, they were most likely skin tags. So convinced, I let him used the electro-cautery machine to burn off the lesions, but the one with the"hair" in or through it or at the side of it, I had him biopsy.
Well the results came back today, and it said that it was a Benign Keratosis, the Differential Diagnosis being a Seborrheic Keratosis or an old Verruca.
The doctor said this was preliiminary and that he should get a more detailed report soon, but that shouldnt change much, just add more detail. This is very confusing to me as I have read many studies on HPV and some indicated that Keratosis or Seborrheic Keratosis that are found in the genital region, are really Genital Warts, where the "koilocytes" are not seen by the dermatopathologist.
I have to say that this lesion was not in an area where it would have came in contact with a woman's genitals, it would be very hard to. However, a long time ago I had a lesion on my inner thigh, and it also came back as a Benign Keratosis.
I really need to understand if I have a Veneral Disease.
My Questions are as follows.
1.) Have you read similar medical studies that have concluded Keratoses in the Genital area as Genital Warts? Your thoughts?
2.) If the dermatopathologist doesnt see koilocytes, should it be assumed to be just a plain vanilla Keratosis?
3.) What is really meant by a "differential diagnosis?" I thought a biopsy is as clear as one can get.
4.) The dermatopathologist has the diffential diagnosis as an old verruca, but what is meant by verruca? A Common Wart?
5.) Have you seen common warts transferred to the inguinal or genital area, in your practice?
dont have any lesions on my penis, pubic area, or scrotum Please advise.