Today I went for a second opinion as to my tx options for my suspected cataracts. I am post RK both eyes (15 years ago), post LASIK for myopia left eye only (8 years ago), and have possible cataracts. My recent vision measurements are:
Obj OD +1.25 -1.25 x 112
OS +2.00 -1.00 x 100
Rx OD +1.75 -1.25 x111 w/25 +2.25
OS +2.00 -0.50 x104 w/25
The Dr. provided the following information:
I have a positive spherical aberration. I am not hyperopic. He believes that my vision problem is partly or largely due to an irregular astigmatism and he plans to have me wear hard contacts in the office at my next visit to learn more. He said that this will help him determine the degree to which my vision problem is due to a surface irregularity or due to cataracts. He stated that PRK may be an appropriate tx to give me the best possible vision and that IOL implants may be helpful as well. He says that I seem to be a candidate for either the Tecnis aspheric or the Crystalens.
Here are my questions:
1. I don’t understand, how I can have an Rx which is OD +1.75 and OS +2.00 and not be “hyperopic.” Additionally, my understanding has been that when you are post RK your cornea flattens and you become “hyperopic.” Yet the Dr. is saying that I am NOT “hyperopic.” I would appreciate any clarification on this.
2. The other physician that I saw a few months ago cautioned me against having any further invasive tx being done on my eye. Is PRK tx relatively safe in the long run (we have learned longitudinally that RK is not safe)? Has there been any good research completed which shows that the combination of PRK and IOL implants works is successful?
3. Prior to this office visit, I was hoping to have only an IOL and expecting that this would be all that I would need. Would it be wise to wait awhile before proceeding with the PRK? Is there a reasonably good chance that a new lens will be developed that will make it unnecessary to have PRK?
As always, any information which may shed some light on these issues will be greatly appreciated. Thank you.