First, I am going to a appointment soon but until then I'd like your expertise...
I've posted here before, I am a 21 year old guy, I went for a glaucoma test a couple months ago duo to a inaccurate IOP reading on a puff test, which the glaucoma specialist then read pressures of 15 in each eye on a Goldmann with cornea thickness of 610 each eye. She told me to come back in a year, and that my left eye has slightly thinner than normal RNFL in a small area, although was confident that I was okay. My optic nerves, cup and all were ''great''. I do have solar retinopathy in each eye.
To my question, I've now noticed that in BOTH eyes, in pretty much the exact same area, a spot as small as a mouse cursor, has pretty much vanished, it is above my blind spot in each eye by a few cm's. It still picks up a small point flash of white against a dark background, although vice versa I can't notice anything there. I was told that only once enough RNFL has been affected, then your optic nerves (and cup?), then become damaged and only then will defects represent, but even if that was the case my right eye has absolutely nothing, not even the smallest bit of RNFL loss in any area. So does this sound like something else? Please share what you think... thankyou.