After 3 IVF attempts (2 cx'd due to poor response and 1 with - pregnancy), my DH and I decided to go with DE's. We picked a lovely 30 year old. She had completed 3 other cycles (thus we were comfortable with her slightly older age). Of these 3 cycles, the 1st ended in pregnancy (they retrieved 18 mature eggs, ~12 fertilized), the 2nd was negative (the RE changed her meds; only 7 eggs retrieved, don't know the number of mature eggs or fert #) and the 3rd (during which she produced 21 eggs, again unknown how many were fertilized) was a freeze-all because the recipient messed up the meds pre-transfer.
For our cycle she had a "great" cycle. At her last appt on 7/16, the measurable follies ranged from 23.5-9. A total of 24 eggs were retrieved. We were not told how many of these were mature. Today, the lab called with the fert report...only 9 fertilized reportedly due to poor sperm morphology.
My DH's (who is now 47) last sperm analysis was in Sept after our failed IVF. The lab told us that the analysis was good, specifically the morphology. THe motility was a bit low (33%, though this was up from 15% a year previous). They planned on using a fresh sperm sample, though had frozen TESA just in case which was retrieved 3 years ago during a vasectomy reversal.
Questions (sorry this is getting so long!):
1) How could the morphology change so much since September?
2) Why wouldn't the lab use the TESA if the morphology of the fresh was so poor?
3) 9 fertlized eggs seems really low?
4) Are the 9 embryos at high risk of arresting or developing atypically due to the poor morphology? How much does the sperm/morphology once fertilized factor into the growth and development of the embryo? Since they fertilized, are they considered no more at risk than any embryo?
5) Any thoughts of the possibility of making it to day 5 transfer??
I hope we are jumping to conclusions, but 9 from 24 seems pretty dismal.
THANKS!
KP