I am 31 yo and my husband is 32 yo. I have had regular periods since beginning menstruation at 12 yo. Last year, I stopped taking BCPs to begin trying to conceive. Since stopping the pill, I only had 2 periods. I am currently seeing a REI specialist. I took one cycle of Clomid at 50 mg, with ovulation (confirmed by pelvic U/S), and no pregnancy. I just completed my second cycle of Clomid at 50 mg with no ovulation. The doctor recommended that I try my third cycle of CLomid at 100 mg.
My question is: Is it common to ovulate on the first cycle of Clomid, and not on the second, even if at the same dose that worked initially? And does no ovulation the second round, indicate that my body will no longer respond to Clomid?