Hello,
I am a heterosexual male. I had a one night encounter with another man two weeks ago (14 days) while exploring whether or not I had any inclination toward being bi-sexual. We engaged in unprotected mutual oral stimulation without ejaculation (there were no sores or evidences of any penis traumas of any sort on the other person, and I had none nor have any evidence of any to date), and then I was the insertive (top) anal (unprotected, using a water based gel lubricant), again without ejaculation (Actually I became very nervous during this time and lost my erection and was unable to continue due to anxiety about the activity), there was no bleeding that was observed or any evidence of sores of any type. I will not ever have this type of interaction again.
I have since spoken with the other man who claims that he does not do this sort of thing regularly. I know this can either be true or false. He also stated that he has tested negative. He also asked my status, to which I stated that I have never had such an encounter, but would believe I was negative as well, but I did not know absolutely. When I asked him how long ago he was tested he stated about a year. I failed to ask him about any sexual activities he may have had since that last test.
I plan to have a full spectrum of STD (PCR is available for HIV and the website states that it is accurate after 28 days) tests at the 28 day mark at a local lab to confirm what I believe to be the case of my being negative, though I know intellectually there may be a possibility of course for a positive result. I plan to be tested for all STD's that are common.
My questions I suppose are, 'How likely am I to have contracted HIV from such an encounter, will the test be accurate (do I understand the test information?), are there any particular STD symptoms I should be looking for (Not only HIV), and is there anything I should consider apart from what I have already considered?
I am afraid pls help.