Heterosexual male, unprotected handjob with another males semen as lube. This was over 4.5 months ago. Confirmed NGU (swab) from the event. Treated with Zpak and then Doxy. Is this an HIV risk? Due to other STD being present, concerned about viral load, etc...
Also concerned about some shoulder joint pain, swollen nodes in neck, pits, and chest (infraclavicular), and weight loss. No real fever, no rash, no real sore throat.... and most of the symptoms that i would attribute to HIV didn't even show up till just recently - last 30 days or so, so about 3.5 months after exposure.
Also, have tested with the Oraquick in home test multiple times (8 total) from week 12 through week 19. All negative, and followed the directions explicitly when taking.
Can I stop worrying about HIV, even with the symptoms lingering (at week 19)?
Welcome to the Forum. I endorse the information you have already received on our HIV Community site. No person has ever gotten HIV from receipt of masturbation. Further, you are clearly not the first. Your multiple negative tests for HIV provide conclusive evidence that you were not infected by the exposure you describe.
I hope this helps. Please move forward and stop worrying. EWH
I cannot tell you where the mis-information you have gotten is coming from. Soon after it was release some investigators published reports suggesting that the Oraquick missed some cases but more recent data have shown that this was not the case. EWH
Appreciate the insight Dr. There is a lot of misleading information out there about the OraQuuick home test then... There are literally hundreds of articles out there claiming that the home test is not as accurate (as the oral test taken in a clinical setting) in identifying people that are actually positive.
Your information is well received.
Now I just need to figure out why all these glands are swollen....
Dr, just wanted t ask for clarification on something.... It appears that there was a typo in your final response to me, and I was hoping you would restate for me so that I may ensure I understand your meaning completely.
"It appears that you are a victim of internet based mis-information. The OraQuick test is quite accurate and the idea that 8% of infected persons is simply not the case."
Did you mean that the Oraquick home test is actually more reliable than the reported 1 out of 12 (infected people) will supposedly show false negatives that was initially reported?
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