Need some clarification

[8weeksgone]

Dear doctor,

Thank you for the help you gave me last time I posted.

I was completely over my scare and I have found myself in this position again.

My possible exposure was two days ago - there was no penetration involved only masturbation. But blood was involved. I was masturbating a female and my fingernails were slightly long, She was also masturbating me - this happened a total of two times. After we were finished I found that I had blood all over my hand, which we assumed was a result of my nails cutting the inside of her vagina while they were inside her.

From reading through the forum I understand that masturbation with the use of vaginal fluids as lubricant is a no risk activity? However I was wondering if your opinion would change in this case seeing as blood which wasn't menstrual would have been mixed with it and has a higher concentration than vaginal fluids?

She was quite rough whilst masturbating me, and and also rubbed my urethra directly a number of times, spreading my pre ejaculation fluid,  this is what has me worried. It lasted about half an hour each time.

So my questions are:
1. Considering the higher concentration in blood would the virus survive slightly longer outside the body and cause a risk in this way?
2. Using vaginal discharge as lubricant, the transfer of fluid would have been almost instant so was not exposed to the air for long before being rubbed onto the penis. Would this speed make a difference or are you adamant that once outside the body and exposed to air the virus no longer has the ability to infect?
3. Is it easy for fluids to enter the blood stream through the urethra or is this something quite difficult? (Would it be easier or harder for this to happen during masturbation compared to during intercourse?

I look forward to your reply and thank you again.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Your repetitive, questions have no relevance whatsoever to your concerns and would require an explanation at a scientific level far, far beyond the purpose or level 0f this Forum. There will be no further explanation.  EWH

[8weeksgone]

Dear doctor
I hope you can understand my concern an need for an explanation.
I appreciate that there has never been such a case.
But I'm finding it hard to understand the NO risk or need for testing if blood on the hand could have come in direct contact with the urethra opening?

Is it because as soon as infected fluid is outside the body it is no longer infectious?
I have found conflicting information on this which is why id like your opinion please?

Thank you

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Your "impression" is wrong.  In fact genital secretions sometimes have more virus present than blood yet there are NO cases in which HIV has been proven to be transmitted by masturbation.  Your anxious question about masturbation is unfounded and has no relevance after being studied for the more than 30 years this epidemic has been with us.  EWH

[8weeksgone]

Thank you for your answer doc
This will be my last post if you wouldn't mind putting my mind at ease.

Could I just ask why it doesn't pose a risk?
I was under the impression that blood has a very high concentration and could potentially enter the urethra during masturbation especially as the blood would have been wet?

Thank you

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Welcome back to the Forum.  I will be answering your question this time.  Your questions suggest a misunderstanding of how HIV is sexually transmitted.  HIV is not transmitted by masturbation.  This is the case even if blood is involved and even if there are cuts or scrapes present on your hands when masturbating a parter.  There are no proven cases of HIV transmission in the sort of exposure you describe.

In your case you do not know that your partner had HIV and in fact, it is statistically unlikely that she is.  My advice is not to worry.  There is no need for concern and no need for testing related to the activities you describe.  EWH