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Avatar universal

penis-hand-mouth-kiss

around 2 1/2 weeks ago i was with a TS sex worker. i limited myself to deep kissing and mutual handjobs i.e. no oral, vaginal or anal sex at any moment.

am i correct those activities should pose no risk for HIV transmission?

in addition, she (or he!) lubricated her penis with lube, and the inserted her finger into her mouth - i think we might have kissed afterwords. i am reasoning that if penis to mouth is very low to no risk, then the intervening factors of her hand and her mouth in between would make it no risk. is my thinking correct? in addition, the only "ejaculate" would have been pre-cum, as she did not ejaculate.

i asked about her status - she said she has no diseases, gets tested every 3 months and only does not use condoms with her boyfriend.

6 Responses
239123 tn?1267651214
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the HIV forum.  You have been asking questions about low- or zero-risk exposures related to HIV transmission intermittently on this and other forums for a couple of years, and your own statement suggests you know the answers to this one.

"am i correct those activities should pose no risk for HIV transmission?"  Yes.

HIV is not transmitted by hand-genital, hand-oral, kissing, or other sorts of indirect contact with secretions. It is only transmitted by sex that involves a bare penis (no condom) inserted inside someone's vagina, rectum or (rarely) mouth.  And it sounds like you had a partner who doesn't have HIV, since it is uncommon for people to lie when asked directly about HIV status.

Here is a thread that explains why there is no risk from exposures of this sort.  Start reading with my follow-up comment December 14:  http://www.medhelp.org/posts/show/1119533

Regards--  HHH, MD
Avatar universal
just to clarify that she lubricated her penis with lube (i.e. not saliva or semen)
239123 tn?1267651214
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
I saw this before responding above.  It makes no difference one way or the other.
Avatar universal
You were very clear in your reply, and I have read your repeated statements that "ARS symptoms" should not be relied on as a means of assessing infection or otherwise.

However, I would like to see whether I am thinking correctly: around 3-4 weeks post "exposure" (deep kissing) I am suffering from pharyngitis, including slightly swollen lymph nodes and ear pain/congestion (both on one side, the latter has now subsided). ears were also slightly red and neck a bit stiff. all this has been evaluated by my GP, to whom I outlined my 'exposure' too. i have not had other 'symptoms' - no  fever, no other swollen nodes in other parts of the body etc.

I am thinking that since the infection is restricted to one part of the body it is more likely to be bacterial, rather than viral, and that, I should not pu the cart before the horse and consider symptoms before considering the 'exposure', which you state is not at risk?
239123 tn?1267651214
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
These symptoms don't sound like those of a new HIV infection and the additional information doesn't change my opinion or advice.  But feel free to be tested if you will feel better about it after a negative test result.
1244063 tn?1281272603
Dr. HHH is really an expert in this..believe in him..trust him..and relax..
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