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Avatar universal

scale to 1 to 10?

hello.  I have a pretty good friend that I haven't seen in a while.  He was separated, but recently got back together with his wife. We went out drinking and the next thing we know, we are messing around.  I've always been curious.  This is what we did:

- We gave each other oral for roughly an hour on two separate occasions
- Each of us licked each other's rectums
- We both inserted one finger into each others rectums
- Both of our penis' touched each others rectums (rubbed it), but there was NO pentatration
- We both masturbated each other
- I came in his mouth and he came on his stomach.  I tasted his cum, but just a tad bit just to see what it was like and didn't swallow anything

He wanted to go all the way, but I insisted that we don't since neither of us had any protection.  He has been with men in the past, but only his friends.  He had a NEGATIVE HIV test about 6 months ago before he got back with his wife and says that he hasn't done anything with anyone else since.  I've talked to him briefly, but it is one of those things that we sort of wished we didn't do.

I know we messed up and will deal with the wife issue independently.  

On a scale of 1 to 10, what is the likelihood of contracting HIV or STDs if he happened to have any?  
Would you get tested if you were in my shoes for HIV?

Also, in general, what is the HIV viral count like in precum?

Thanks for your time.
4 Responses
300980 tn?1194933000
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the Forum.  This was a low risk exposure based on several things.  First it is unlikely that your partner had HIV.  If he had managed not to get HIV until he was tested six months ago, it is unlikely (but not impossible) that he was infected I the past six months.  Second, there is little risk to the exposures you describe.  There is no risk for HIV acquisition from mutual masturbation, kicking a partner's rectum, or receipt of oral sex.  There may be a small risk related to performance on an infected partner, perhaps in the range of 1 infection per 10,000 exposures.  Thus on a 1-10 scale, I would this exposure as a 1 or less.  Personally, I see no reason for testing related to this exposure.

Regarding your question about HIV in pre-ejaculate, studies do not differentiate between pre-ejaculate and ejaculate.  In genital secretions however, the amount of virus present is typically about the same, or occasionally higher, than in blood.

I hope these comments are helpful.  EWH
Avatar universal
forgot to add.  He is not circumcised, but I am.  I also checked his penis and didn't notice any thing out of the ordinary.
Avatar universal
Thanks for the reassurance.  I've been trying to educate myself more on STDs in general.  Something that I came across in my research is this thing 'ARS'.  I understand that you said I don't need testing based on my account, but I had a generic question on something that I am experiencing.

I have jaw pain on the left of my mouth (sort of where the jaw hooks to the skull I guess), it hurts a little bit to open it all the way.  Also, I am having some pain in the groin area (left side) where I would imagine the lympnodes to be.  I haven't had any real high fevers, maybe mild ones here and there and I think that may be attributed to anxiety over this whole thing.

In your medical experience, have you seen any STDs (to include HIV) cause jaw pain at 2 weeks post exposure and same thing about the groin pain?

I won't ask anything else, I just had these follow up questions.  Thanks.
300980 tn?1194933000
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
No, STDs do not cause isoalted jaw pain.  If there were swollen lymph nodes someone might note grain pain but usually other symptoms would accompany this.  Recognizing abnormal lymph nodes can be challenging however.

This will end this thread.  EWH
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