Hello Doctors and forums readers.
First off, I'd like to mention that I have read many of the posts on here, and would like to thank all of the individuals, and especially doctors who take the time to contribute to this board.
Now, I'd like to ask a question that needs clearing up to me.
I've read everywhere, including this board, the HIV passes easier from male to female during heterosexual vaginal intercourse than it does from female to male.
Now I'm located in Vancouver, B.C., Canada and wanted to find out the total reported cases for my region broken by sex and sexual orientation. (More specifically heterosexual males and females)
The BC Center for Disease Control notes that in 2008, there were 82 newly diagnosed HIV infections detected in the heterosexual group. Out of these 82 newly diagnosed patients, 28 were female, and 54 were male.
This information seems to contradict what I have read absolutely everywhere, and leaves me a little puzzled.
If HIV passes more readily from male to female during heterosexual vaginal intercourse, then why, or how, are there more reported cases of males being infected who are indeed heterosexual?
Here's a link to the page on the BC Center for Disease Control where I got my information from. Scroll down to STI/HIV and click on the most recent report (2008) and download the .PDF if you would like to have a read.. (the information I am referring to is on page 42) : http://www.bccdc.ca/util/about/annreport/default.htm
Any clarification on this matter would be greatly appreciated, and thank you very much for your time.