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Conclusiveness Gen 4 duo test

Hi all - many governmental bodies say that tests are conclusive after 42-45 days. However, many private clinics state that the test is over 99% accurate at 28 days.

Many people say 28 days post exposure is sufficient.

How come these dates are mentioned and how come some say 42 days inStead of 28days? Is a specific group not testing positive at 28 days?

Could somebody explain this?
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3191940 tn?1447268717
This academic question has been asked many times here and elsewhere.  

Did you have a risk for HIV? If so, what was it and when did you test?
Helpful - 1
I had a sexual encounter whereby I was the insertive partner of a Shemale. It was very briefly, didn’t come and it was 20-40 sec max.

I met this couple multiple times and always we used a condom. They stated they got tested 2 weeks before and were clean. They got annoyed when I asked whether they want to test again since they state they are clean.

I tested Monday, day 30 after exposure. Have now a small mouth ulcer on the bottom gum and a bit of mini cold. But this could be lack of sleep plus the change in weather here in Northern Europe.

Due to the test at 30 days and now a bit of symptom I got worried again when reading the 42-45 days conclusiveness date. Hence my questions.
If you used a condom that did not VISIBLY break, you were never at risk for HIV and there is no reason to test for HIV.
I understand, no condom use in this specific encounter but prior we always used condoms.
I see.  Well, it is really up to you when to be comfortable with the test being conclusive.  28 days applies to most encounters  - low risk encounters, involving people who are very unlikely to have HIV.  Given their negative tests and the fact that they always used condoms previously, this seems to be the case and I would be confident in a 28-day test.

The later time period is for those who have had a high-risk encounter with someone HIV+ or with a stranger whose status is unknown - that would be unprotected anal sex.  
Yes, these are good indications. However, I don’t want to be that person that falls in this 2% bucket when testing at 4 weeks.

I classify this more as a higher risk since I don’t know them personally and the fact they got annoyed when I asked.

I guess I have to wait until the 6 week mark (probably will test myself at 5 again) before I can calm down.

I was with my initial question more asking for an explanation about the difference in people who test positive at 6 but not at 4 weeks (weakened immune system? Or other specifics? And how often will a person that is negative at 30 days be positive at 6 week mark).
It is simple math.

In a situation where HIV status is unknown, and the risk is low, the odds of the partner being HIV+ (most people are not) multiplied by the odds of the test not detecting HIV at 28 days are astronomical.
Hi - I know, however. When you are stressed like me the rational thinking is out the window - and the worst case scenarios are stuck in my head.

The reasoning is more: what if they got infected a few weeks before the test or just after and have a high viral load, increasing the chances of me getting infected.

I totally see your point and it’s good that you say it. However, it’s hard to rationalise it for me.

Then just test at 6 weeks.  Then you'll know with absolute certainty.  There's not anything else to say, really.
Hi - CurfewX, tested negative at day 44day post exposure with a gen4 combo test with blood from the vein.

I guess now the negative result is conclusive right?
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