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Curious About Confidence in "zero risk" Statements
I have just recently joined MedHelp and find it aninteresting and informative site.
I am somewhat curious about the distinction between comments from the physicians and those from the forum members / moderators (ie: Lizzie and Teak). Obviously the good doctors are not going to ever use the term "zero risk" when talking about such things as risk when it comes to receiving oral sex as it is safer to refer to the medical community being anywhere from "theoretical" to "low" whereas others on here will state it categorically and emphatically. I understand that re: the seroconversion issue that none of the couples did transmit the virus however I am curious about the 1 in 10,000, 1 in 20,000 and "higher" statistics and where they come from if there is truly "zero" risk? How can you feel 100% confident making such a bold and blanket statement - and this is not meant to sound antagonistic, but I truly would like to understand where your confidence comes from?
Going through a current scare myself following the receiving of 5 - 10 seconds of oral during a massage 5 weeks ago, the confidence that I have gotten regarding my own hiv risk is a needed and appreciated lift that has allowed me to resume eating and sleeping for the most part although I will not be taking my rapid hiv test until 6 weeks +1 day (next friday) and for that I thank you. In addition, the past weeks have forced me into a maturity regarding this disease and the fact that it's not "how" one acquires it as much as how important it is to ensure that we take the best care of ourselves when it comes to the decisions that we make each and every time.
I am somewhat curious about the distinction between comments from the physicians and those from the forum members / moderators (ie: Lizzie and Teak). Obviously the good doctors are not going to ever use the term "zero risk" when talking about such things as risk when it comes to receiving oral sex as it is safer to refer to the medical community being anywhere from "theoretical" to "low" whereas others on here will state it categorically and emphatically. I understand that re: the seroconversion issue that none of the couples did transmit the virus however I am curious about the 1 in 10,000, 1 in 20,000 and "higher" statistics and where they come from if there is truly "zero" risk? How can you feel 100% confident making such a bold and blanket statement - and this is not meant to sound antagonistic, but I truly would like to understand where your confidence comes from?
Going through a current scare myself following the receiving of 5 - 10 seconds of oral during a massage 5 weeks ago, the confidence that I have gotten regarding my own hiv risk is a needed and appreciated lift that has allowed me to resume eating and sleeping for the most part although I will not be taking my rapid hiv test until 6 weeks +1 day (next friday) and for that I thank you. In addition, the past weeks have forced me into a maturity regarding this disease and the fact that it's not "how" one acquires it as much as how important it is to ensure that we take the best care of ourselves when it comes to the decisions that we make each and every time.
I assume that that is the Spanish study. The "theoretical" terminology I get the reason for using, but if there is no risk then what about the "low" or "lower than anal or vaginal"?
Government, like the doctors on here obviously will never say "never". The CDC is an intersting organization re: their take and claims that it IS possible. Has the World Health Organization taken a stance yet?
Despite the seriousness of this illness, it is a very interesting study.
Government, like the doctors on here obviously will never say "never". The CDC is an intersting organization re: their take and claims that it IS possible. Has the World Health Organization taken a stance yet?
Despite the seriousness of this illness, it is a very interesting study.
Science says i'm right also based on a couple of different studies. One study lasted 10 years with a HIV+ and HIV- couples. Over 18000 acts of oral sex happened unprotected and no new HIV infections were reported.
The thing with theoretical risk is that in theory anything can happen. The sun could burn out tomorrow in theory, you could be hit by a comet, the earth's core could start cooling...all possible in theory but in real life we know these things are not going to happen.
Also when you look at government sites you have to realize that they have to be ultra conservative.
The thing with theoretical risk is that in theory anything can happen. The sun could burn out tomorrow in theory, you could be hit by a comet, the earth's core could start cooling...all possible in theory but in real life we know these things are not going to happen.
Also when you look at government sites you have to realize that they have to be ultra conservative.
Everything that you said was what I figured and have read also. With the amount of oral that goes on, I too would excpect to see more if not some concretly confirmed cases (especially with so many youth having oral sex so often, freely and young).
But my curiosity comes from the discrepancy between these facts and the variety of risk assesments from various "official" (government or hiv / aids) and std sites of which many / most state that oral sex "IS" a risk - albeit low or "lower" than anal or vaginal.
I certainly understand that most who partake in oral also have other forms. Using myself as an example, Was tested 1 year ago (mortgage insurance requirement) and got neg. With the exception of my brief oral 5 weeks ago, I have been 100% faithful to my wife and have never been a drug user so my risk is what? Zero? Theoretical (so theoretically possible to be other than zero? Low (if statistics quoted then there must be confirmed case(s)). Where do these organizations that say it can happen get their facts to back it up if there aren't any?
I think that this is what concerns many who are looking to be told optimistically what there risk truly is.
Common sense says you're right, but the science seems to be vague at best.
But my curiosity comes from the discrepancy between these facts and the variety of risk assesments from various "official" (government or hiv / aids) and std sites of which many / most state that oral sex "IS" a risk - albeit low or "lower" than anal or vaginal.
I certainly understand that most who partake in oral also have other forms. Using myself as an example, Was tested 1 year ago (mortgage insurance requirement) and got neg. With the exception of my brief oral 5 weeks ago, I have been 100% faithful to my wife and have never been a drug user so my risk is what? Zero? Theoretical (so theoretically possible to be other than zero? Low (if statistics quoted then there must be confirmed case(s)). Where do these organizations that say it can happen get their facts to back it up if there aren't any?
I think that this is what concerns many who are looking to be told optimistically what there risk truly is.
Common sense says you're right, but the science seems to be vague at best.
Because in over 25+ years of the HIV virus no one has ever gotten HIV from receiving oral sex. There have been a few and I mean few reported cases but those cases have turned out to be false based on other risky behavior found out.
Do you really think that if it was a risk that a lot more people would have HIV? Because oral sex is a very very common practice to be done without protection.
Also there have been several studies that have shown that HIV is not passed via oral sex.
So we can make such statements because of science and common sense.
Do you really think that if it was a risk that a lot more people would have HIV? Because oral sex is a very very common practice to be done without protection.
Also there have been several studies that have shown that HIV is not passed via oral sex.
So we can make such statements because of science and common sense.
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