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Fellatio risk and Dr. Hook's answer

I asked the wonderful Dr. Edward Hook about the risk of performing oral sex on a male in the experts forum. My case was one of exposure to pre-ejaculate, but no ejaculation.  As part of his answer, he said the following, as in quotes....." Before I answer however, let me tell you that I am confident that the risk of humans getting HIV from performance of oral sex is minuscule.  This statement is based on studies of thousands of human beings ads well as the fact that neither Dr. Handsfield, me, nor our colleagues when polled informally have ever seen or heard of a convincing case in which HIV was convincingly transmitted through oral sex. The CDC agrees with us as well."   End of quote.  I didn't know the CDC agreed with that.  I thought they had a few "documented" cases.  And I am not trying to disqualify anything the Doctor said, so please do not think that.  Any thoughts on this?  Thank you.
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Avatar universal
is this male to male oral sex with one possibly being infected?
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A female giving oral sex to a male....
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720609 tn?1328779596
See the study in AIDS Journal November 22, 2002 issue.  A study by Univ. California San Francisco of 239 HIV-negative men who only had oral sex with men (over 30% of which had ejaculation in their mouths) over a ten year period showed a 0% rate of transmission.  Oral sex is not a risk for HIV transmission.
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Hello!  I never heard of this study, but that sounds great.  Is there anywhere I can see it?  Also, I thought a San Francisco study showed somewhere around an 8% transmission rate through oral?   Was that a different study?  And did it have any merit?  Thank you so much jhguy011, or anybody who knows more on this subject...
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Also, wasn't that 10 year study done in Spain, or was the San Fran one done for 10 years as well?
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http://www.aidsmap.com/en/news/9119DA7D-74C3-4E96-B2B2-75EC08394FD8.asp
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Wow, I have never seen this....thank you so much!  
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I just read the link above that joggen sent me....the only question I have about this study is.....how did they know if any of the men that the men had oral sex with were hiv positive?  If none of them were, there would obviously be no transmissions of it.  I know in the Spanish study, it was done between one positive and one negative partner....any info on this?  Thank you.
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But I did read that it kind of discounted the other San Fran study that attributed 8% of cases to oral sex.....
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Your right, the SF study was not with established serodiscordant couples. Although, probably 10-20% of their partners had HIV.

The Spanish study is the strongest IMO- more than 19,000 acts between a POS and negative, and no transmission. Studies will probably never be more robust than that.



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Wrong, The SF Study was serodiscordant couples.
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This does not sound like a study with serodiscordant couples. (read last sentence):


The risk of a gay man acquiring HIV from oral sex is extremely low according to a US study published in the November 2002 edition of the journal AIDS.

Investigators recruited 239 gay men seeking anonymous HIV testing in San Francisco between December 1999 and 2001. The men were asked to complete a questionnaire about the type of sex they had had in the previous six months prior to having an HIV test. Although over 10,000 men attended for testing and completed the survey, only 239 reported having oral sex exclusively and were eligible for the study.

The San Francisco researchers were also keen to identify the population-attributable risk percentage of oral sex, as even a very small individual risk of HIV transmission from oral sex for an individual could result in a substantial number of infections in the population as a whole.

On average, the men in the study had had receptive oral sex with three different men in the past six months (range 0 – 400).
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Oral sex is a low risk.  Period.
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Oral sex isn't a risk at all. PERIOD..........
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hey guys, sorry to come back to this but wold the presence of blisters, ulcers or sores in the mouth change any of the findings from these studies?
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Avatar universal
No...
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