Hello community. As briefly as possible: yesterday, I received a "happy ending" at the conclusion of an otherwise "normal" massage session. Now, I have read the forums enough to know that "erotic massage" and/or mutual masturbation (in this case, one-way digital sex only) are low (or no, depending on the answerer) risk. However, one thing I am often confounded by is the seemingly default assumption that potential transmittors of disease are HIV negative. It seems, unless I am misreading things, that part of the assessment of "low-risk" activity derives from the fact that most people don't have HIV. So, my question in 2 parts:
1) When risk categories are assigned to specific sex acts, is it always with the idea that one person is negative, and one positive? And, primarily:
2) IF the person in question IS definitively HIV + (in this case, a combination massage therapist/sex worker, status unknown), would PEP be warranted? In other words, would knowing the HIV status trump the low risk factor?
I hope this makes sense. I will only follow-up if I need to clarify, and not to nag. Thanks so very much.